WBSET 2018 PAPER 1 OFFICIAL SOLVED PAPER
KEYWORDS: WBSET 2018 PAPER 1 SOLVED PAPER WBSET, WB SET PAPER 1 SOLVED PAPER, WBSET SOLVED PAPER 1, SET SOLVED OLD PAPER 1, WBSET 2018 PAPER 1, PAPER 1 UGC NET, NTA UGC NET PAPER 1,WBSET 2018 SOLVED PAPER,
So, This is the official Questions Paper and Answer Key for the paper 1 conducted on 2018 , taken from official website
Note: This paper contains (50) multiple choice questions, each questions carrying two (2) marks. Attempt all of them.
(PDF) For download pdf file of question paper go to the bottom of this post.
Read the passage below and answer the questions (Nos. 1 to 5) based on your understanding of the passage:
The “who’s who” of universities and research institutions published by the Human Resource Development Ministry, as the National Institutional Ranking Framework (NIRF) 2018, should be viewed mainly as a proposition that data make it possible to assign objective credentials to some aspects of education.
Its assessment of some of the top institutions such as the Indian Institute of Science, the Jawaharlal Nehru University, the IITs and the IIMs is unsurprising, given their record of research, peer-reviewed publications and outcomes for graduates.
Even among the 3,954 institutions that participated, there is a clear skew towards southern, south eastern and western India. Participation levels are inadequate: there were 40,026 colleges and 11,669 standalone institutions according to the HRD Ministry’s All India Survey on Higher Education for 2016-17.
To the faculty and students in many colleges, what matters is the vision of the administrative leaders and a commitment to excellence. The governing bodies should make available adequate financial and academic resources to colleges, particularly the younger ones, to help them improve performance. These are measured by the NIRF in terms of the percentage of faculty with doctoral degrees, papers published in credentialed journals, inclusivity and diversity of students and median salaries for the graduates.
Q.1. With reference to paragraph 1, what does the author mean by the phrase “who’s who”?
(A) He wants to know who they are?
(B) He is wondering who developed the list.
(C) He is referring to the top institutions among universities and research institutes.
(D) He is asking the reader to guess who these institutions are?
Answer: C
Q.2. Which of the following four regions demonstrate greater tendency towards participation in the NIRF?
(i) Northern
(ii) North-Eastern
(iii) Western
(iv) South-Eastern
Code:
(A) Only (iii) and (iv)
(B) Only (i), (iii) and (iv)
(C) Only (i), (ii) and (iv)
(D) Only (ii) and (iv)
Answer: A
Q.3. Which of the following parameter(s) does/do the faculty and students consider to be most important while determining the worth of an institution?
(i) Vision of the leadership
(ii) Frequency of pay hikes
(iii) Availability of adequate academic resources
Code:
(A) Only (iii)
(B) Only (1)
(C) Only (i) and (iii)
(D) Only (ii) and (iii)
Answer: C
Q.4. Which of the following parameter (s) is/are used by the NIRF to judge institutions for the purpose of their ranking?
(i) Papers published in reputed journals
(ii) Number of highly qualified faculty
(iii) Diversity of the student body
Code:
(A) Only (iii)
(B) Only (i), (ii) and (iii)
(C) Only (i)
(D) Only (ii)
Answer: B
Q.5. Which of the following is/are true according to the passage?
(i) There was a huge amount of participation in NIRF 2018.
(ii) The ranking system has been critiqued for failing to capture the critical metric of learning outcomes.
(iii) NIRF assessment of the top institutions is still expected.
Code:
(A) Only (i)
(B) Only (ii)
(C) Only (i), (ii) and (iii)
(D) Only (iii)
Answer: D
Q.6. Study of the location of coal mines in India by a student in the Geography laboratory’ is:
(A) A learning outcome
(B) A learning experience
(C) A teaching activity
(D) A teaching objective
Answer: B
Q.7. Teaching is more effective when a teacher uses:
(A) Lecture method
(B) Demonstration method
(C) Direct instruction
(D) Interactive teaching
Answer: D
Q.8. Direct instruction is a teaching style in which:
(A) Teacher and students are actively engaged.
(B) Teacher is actively engaged.
(C) Students are actively engaged.
(D) Neither teacher nor students are actively engaged.
Answer: B
Q.9. Match the items of List-l with the items of List-II and indicate your answer by selecting the correct code.
|
List-I |
List-II |
|
(a) Collaborative learning |
(i) Socratic dialogue |
|
(b) Jurisprudential inquiry |
(ii) Pro-active stage of teaching |
|
(c) Instructional objective |
(iii) Interpersonal affiliation |
|
(d) Assessment for learning |
(iv) Aggregation of individual change |
|
|
(v) Creativity |
Code:
|
|
(a) |
(b) |
(c) |
(d) |
|
(A) |
iii |
i |
v |
ii |
|
(B) |
i |
v |
iii |
iv |
|
(C) |
iv |
ii |
v |
i |
|
(D) |
iii |
iv |
v |
ii |
Answer: A
Q.10. In the process of evaluation, assessment procedure involves:
(A) Measurement and non-measurements
(B) Measurement or non-measurements
(C) Measurement and/or non-measurements
(D) Neither measurement nor non measurements
Answer: C
Q.11. In any research involving human participants, maintaining the confidentiality of data is:
(A) A common sense
(B) A legal consideration
(C) An obligation
(D) An ethical consideration
Answer: D
Q.12. Which of the following is exclusive to ethnographic research?
(A) Field based research
(B) Mixed research approach
(C) Study of culture
(D) Conducted in a natural setting
Answer: C
Q.13. Which of the following characteristic of research is not commonly found across all the disciplines?
(A) Precision
(B) Objectivity
(C) Verifiability
(D) Impartiality
Answer: C
Q.14. Writing of a research proposal uses:
(A) References
(B) Footnotes
(C) Endnotes
(D) Bibliography
Answer: D
Q.15. Which of the following is not required for research in the Digital Humanities?
(A) Computer literacy
(B) Open-access databases
(C) Specialized knowledge of computer languages
(D) Text analysis
Answer: C
Q.16. Identify the correct sequence among the following four activities in research and indicate your answer by selecting the correct code.
(i) Conclusions
(ii) Literature review
(iii) Utility
(iv) Findings
Code:
(A) (ii), (i), (iv) and (iii)
(В) (i), (ii), (i) and (iv)
(C) (ii), (iv), (i) and (iii)
(D) (i), (iii), (iv) and (ii)
Answer: C
Q.17. Which modern theoretical approach in research originated in India?
(A) Translation Studies
(B) Subaltern Studies
(C) Race Studies
(D) Ethnicity Studies
Answer: B
Q.18. The best type of communication among people of equal status in higher education is:
(A) Diagonal communication
(B) Horizontal communication
(C) Cross communication
(D) Vertical communication
Answer: B
Q.19. TV channel launched for covering only Engineering and Technology subjects is known as:
(A) Gyan Darshan
(B) Vyas
(C) Eklavya
(D) Kisan
Answer: C
Q.20. Find the missing number maintaining the rule given below:
1+4= 5
2 + 5 = 12
3+ 6 = 21
9 + 12 =?
Choose the correct missing number from the following:
(A) 76
(B) 96
(C) 117
(D) 125
Answer: C
Q.21. Of the following statements there are two statements both of which cannot be true. Which are these two statements?
(i) Dinosaurs became extinct in the Cretaceous-Paleolithic era
(ii) Dinosaurs were destroyed after the invention of gunpowder
(iii) Dinosaurs failed to adapt to environmental changes
(iv) Dinosaurs might have been saved if they had been protected in zoos
Code:
(A) (i) and (ii) are not true
(B) (ii) and (iv) are not true
(C) (i) and (iv) are not true
(D) (iii) and (iv) are not true
Answer: B
What percentage growth is in the demand for Railway Material over the eight-year period from 2004-2005 to 2011-2012?
(A) 10:5%
(B) 11:5%
(C) 12-5%
(D) 13:5%
Answer: C
Q.23. The letters of the word RACTOR are in disorder.
If they are arranged in proper order, the name of a vegetable is formed. What is the first and last letters of the word so formed?
(A) AT
(B) CT
(C) T. A
(D) TC
Answer: B
Q.24. Three squares are drawn as follows:
From the above figure find the missing values in the middle of the square and choose the correct answer from the following:
(A) 3, 3
(B) 4,4
(C) 6,6
(D) 8, 2
Answer: C
Q.25. If MACHINE is coded as 197914152011 then DANGER will be coded as:
(A) 13-7-20-13-11-24
(B) 13-7-20-10-11-25
(C) 13-7-20-16-11-24
(D) 10-7-20-13-11-24
Answer: D
Q.26. Which one of the following numbers will occupy the blank space?
(A) 22
(B) 18
(C) 16
(D) 24
Answer: B
Q.27. The sum of three numbers is 102. If the ratio between first and second be 2:3 and that between second and third be 5:3, then the second number is:
(A) 30
(B) 45
(C) 27
(D) 48
Answer: B
Q.28. The least perfect square which is divisible by 3, 4, 5, 6, 8 is:
(A) 900
(B) 1200
(C) 2500
(D) 3600
Answer: D
Q.29. The argument below is followed by an inference. Choose the correct option with reference to the inference.
Argument: The CBCS syllabus has been introduced to facilitate credit transfers of students.
Inference: The CBCS syllabus is not at all useful for students not seeking credit transfer.
(A) Valid
(B) Invalid
(C) Doubtful
(D) Inconclusive
Answer: B
Q.30. A group of students decided to collect as many rupees from each member of the group as the number of members. If the total collection amounts to ₹ 2209,
the number of members in the group is:
(A) 37
(B) 47
(C) 43
(D) 107
Answer: B
Q.31. Two pipes A and B can fill a tank in 24 minutes and 32 minutes respectively. If both the pipes are opened simultaneously, after how much time should B be closed so that the tank is full in 18 minutes?
(A) 8
(B) 10
(C) 9
(D) 6
Answer: A
Q.32. In the given diagram circle represents strong men, square represents tall men and triangle represents army officers. Which region represents army officers who are tall but not strong?
(A) 1
(B) 3
(C) 4
(D) 2
Answer: C
Q.33. From amongst six boys A, B, C, D, E and F and five girls P. Q. R, S and T: a team of six is to be selected under the following conditions:
A and D have to be together.
B cannot be teamed with E.
D cannot go with P.
C cannot go with S.
B and R have to be together.
S and T have to be together.
If four members including E have to be boys, the members other than E are:
(A) ABCOR
(B) ACDFQ
(C) ADFST
(D) BCFOR
Answer: C
Q.34. The full form of IOT is:
(A) Internet of Tasks
(B) Information of Things
(C) Internet of Things
(D) Interdependency of Things
Answer: C
Q.35. A digital signature is called:
(A) Digitally scanned signature
(B) Handwritten signature
(C) Encrypted information
(D) Verbally communicated message
Answer: C
Q.36. Where does a computer add and compare its data?
(A) CPU
(B) Memory
(C) Hard Disc
(D) Floppy Disc
Answer: A
Q.37. Bandwidth of data communication is a measure of its:
(A) Physical dimension
(B) Data communication capacity
(C) Electrical parameters
(D) Physical strength
Answer: B
Q.38. Match the items of List-I with the items of List-II and indicate your answer by selecting the correct code:
List-I
(a) Netizen
(b) Memex
(C) Floppy Disk
(d) C++ Programming Language
List-II
(i) Michael Frederick Hauben
(ii) Vannevar Bush
(iii) Gordon Moore
(iv) Yoshiro Nakamatsu
(v) Bjarne Stroustrup
Code:
|
|
(a) |
(b) |
(c) |
(d) |
|
(A) |
ii |
iii |
i |
iv |
|
(B) |
iii |
v |
iv |
ii |
|
(C) |
v |
i |
ii |
iv |
|
(D) |
iv |
ii |
i |
v |
Answer: A,B,C,D
Q.39. Red Data Book provides authentic data on:
(A) Red flowered plants
(B) Red coloured fishes
(C) Lists of plants and animals
(D) Endangered plants and animals
Answer: D
Q.40. When is World Wildlife Week observed?
(A) First week of September
(B) Last week of September
(C) First week of October
(D) Last week of October
Answer: C
Q.41. The headquarters of the International Union for Conservation of Nature is at:
(A) Gland
(B) Paris
(C) Vienna
(D) New York
Answer: A
Q.42. The protocol that reduces greenhouse gas emission is:
(A) Kyoto protocol
(B) Vienna protocol
(C) Montreal protocol
(D) Cartagena protocol
Answer: A
Q.43. Match the items of List-I with the items of List-11 and indicate your answer by selecting the correct code.
List-I
(a) Troposphere
(b) Stratosphere
(c) Mesosphere
(d) Thermosphere
List-II
(i) The pyramid of numbers and biomass
(ii) Ionosphere
(iii) Meteorites
(iv) Ozone gas
(v) Occurrence of almost all the weather phenomena
Code:
|
|
(a) |
(b) |
(c) |
(d) |
|
(A) |
iii |
ii |
i |
v |
|
(B) |
v |
iv |
iii |
ii |
|
(C) |
v |
i |
iii |
iv |
|
(D) |
i |
v |
ii |
iii |
Answer: B
Q.44. The NAAC is an autonomous institution of the:
(A) MHRD
(B) Quality Council of India
(C) UGC
(D) Higher Education Council of India
Answer: C
Q.45. Which of the following is not a function of the IQAC?
(A) Development of quality parameters for the academic activities of the institution
(B) Organization of workshops and seminars on quality related themes
(C) Acting as a nodal centre of the institution for related academic activities
(D) Preparation of quality syllabus for different teaching programmes operating in the institution
Answer: D
Q.46. Which of the following represents the correct chronology concerning foundation of national organizations?
(A) NCERT – Indian Institute of Advanced Study
– IGNOU – National Council for Teacher Education
(B) Indian Institute of Advanced Study-NCERT
– National Council for Teacher Education – IGNOU
(C) NCERT – National Council for Teacher Education – IGNOU – Indian Institute of Advanced Study
(D) IGNOU – NCERT – Indian Institute of Advanced Study – National Council for Teacher Education
Answer: A
Q.47. “Learning: The Treasure Within” submitted to the UNESCO by Jacques Delors, is a report on:
(A) Education
(B) Economics
(C) Foreign Affairs
(D) Racial Matters
Answer: A
Q.48. In the contemporary India, higher education institutions aim at to inculcate the following values amongst students:
(A) Moral values
(B) Inclusive values
(C) Religious values
(D) Democratic values
Answer: B
Q.49. Which of the following scheme is not included under National Skill Qualification Framework scheme?
(A) B. Voc Degree programme
(B) Deen Dayal Upadhyay KAUSHAL Kendra
(C) Pandit Madan Mohan Malaviya National Mission on Teachers and Training
(D) Community College
Answer: C
Q.50. Match the items of List-I with the items of List-II and indicate your answer by selecting the correct code.
List-I
(a) SWAYAM
(b) SWAYAM Prabha
(c) National programme on Technology Enabled Learning
(d) National Digital Library of India
List – II
(i) Virtual repository of learning resources
(ii) Subject expert database
(iii) Course contents in Engineering and Science
(iv) DTH Channel for educational resources
(v) Massive Open online Courses
Code:
|
|
(a) |
(b) |
(c) |
(d) |
|
(A) |
v |
iv |
iii |
i |
|
(B) |
iii |
ii |
iv |
v |
|
(C) |
ii |
i |
iii |
iv |
|
(D) |
v |
iv |
ii |
iii |
Answer: A