JUNE 2020 PAPER 2 NTA UGC NET GEOGRAPHY SOLVED PAPER
So, This is the official Questions Paper and Answer Key for the paper 2 geography conducted on June 2020, taken from
Note: This paper contains 100 multiple choice questions, each questions carrying two (2) marks. Attempt all of them.
(PDF) For download pdf file of question paper go to the bottom of this post.
Q.1 Which one of the following is not a non-renewable resources?
(1) Fish
(2) Plants
(3) Fossil fuels
(4) Solar energy
Answer: 3
A renewable resource is a resources which can be used repeatedly and replaced naturally. Renewable energy almost never runs out.
Example: Solar, Wind, Hydro, Biomass and Geothermal Energy.
Non-renewable resources are any resources that “do not form or replenish in a short period of time”. Non-renewable energy will eventually run out.
Example: Coal, Natural Gas, Petroleum, Fossil Fuel
Q.2 Who is recognised as the founder of Scientific Marine Meteorology
(1) L.C. King
(2) M.F. Maury
(3) W.M. Davis
(4) F.P. Shepard
Answer: 2
M.F. Maury
The first real scientist of the sea and the first oceanographer, Matthew Maury was called “Pathfinder of the Oceans.”
Book- The Physical Geography of the Sea (1855).
Q.3. Match List I with List II:
| List I (Types of precipitation) | List II (Approximate size) |
| (A) Mist | (I) 2 – 5 mm |
| (B) Snow | (II) 0.5 – 5 mm |
| (C) Graupel | (III) 0.005 – 0.05 mm |
| (D) Sleet | (IV) 1 mm – 20 mm |
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
| A | B | C | D | |
| (1) | I | III | II | IV |
| (2) | III | IV | II | I |
| (3) | IV | II | III | I |
| (4) | III | IV | I | II |
Answer: 4
Explanation:
(A) Mist – 0.005 -0.05 mm
(B) Snow – 1 mm – 20 mm
(C) Graupel – 2 – 5 mm
(D) Sleet – 0.5 – 5 mm
Q.4 Who among the following defined Geography as a Chorological Science?
(1) P.E. James
(2) Hettner. J
(3) Richthofen
(4) Darwin .C
Answer: 2
Q.5 Match List I with List II:
| List I- (Measurement Methods) | Last II – (Devised by) |
| (A) Rank coefficient Method | (I) Jasbir Singh |
| (B) Crop yield and concentration indices | (II) Dudley stamp |
| (C) Carrying capacity of land | (III) Kendall |
| (D) Index of Productivity | (IV) M. Shafi |
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
| A | B | C | D | |
| (1) | III | I | II | IV |
| (2) | IV | III | I | II |
| (3) | I | IV | II | III |
| (4) | II | I | IV | III |
Answer: 1
(A) Rank coefficient Method – Kendall
(B) Crop yield and concentration indices – Jasbir Singh
(C) Carrying capacity of land – Dudley stamp
(D) Index of Productivity – M. Shafi
Q.6 Ria is an example of:
(1) Submerged upland shore
(2) Emerged upland shore
(3) Neutral Shore
(4) Compound Shore
Answer: 1
This type of coast are mainly found in Atlantic region of north-west France, north-west Spain, south-west Ireland etc. Ria coast developed when coastal mountains run at right angles to the sea and a rise in the sea level submerges or drowns the lower parts of the valleys.
Q.7 Given below are two statements : One is labeled as Assertion (A) and the ether is labeled as Renson (R):
Assertion (A): Along with water vapour, carbon dioxide is largely responsible for the green house effect of the atmosphere.
Reasons: Carbon dioxide is not an important heat absorber.
In the light of the above Statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) in true but (R) is false
(4) (A) is false but (R) is true
Answer: 3
Greenhouse gasses are those which have the ability to allow the sun’s rays (short wave sunlight) to pass through without much restriction, but block or absorb the longer wave (Infrared) radiation from the earth’s surface back into space. This causes the atmosphere to be warmer than it would be without these gasses. Water vapor is the major ‘greenhouse’ gas, comprising about 95% of them, with CO2 making up about 4%, and methane and others making up the remaining 1%.
The primary greenhouse gases in Earth’s atmosphere are water vapor (H2O), carbon dioxide (CO2), methane (CH4), nitrous oxide (N2O), and ozone (O3). Without greenhouse gases, the average temperature of Earth’s surface would be about −18 °C (0 °F), rather than the present average of 15 °C (59 °F).
Q.8 Which one of the following percentage of solar radiation reflected back and scattered to space?
(1) 58%
(2) 12%
(3) 30%
(4) 20%
Answer: 3
Q.9 Given below are two statements:
Statement I: In any system of constant mass, energy is neither created nor destroyed.
Statement II: The energy flow in the ecosystem is NOT unidirectional.
In the light of the above Statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
(3) Statement I in correct but Statement II in incorrect
(4) Statement is incorrect but Statement II is correct
Answer: 3
Energy Flow in an Ecosystem
Ecosystems require a constant input of energy as every component of an ecosystem is regularly dissipating energy. Two laws of thermodynamics govern this flow of energy. According to first law of thermodynamics energy can be transferred as well as transformed but is neither created nor destroyed. According to second law of thermodynamics every activity involving energy transformation is accompanied by dissipation of energy. Except for deep hydrothermal ecosystems, the source of energy in all ecosystems is solar energy. 50% of the solar energy incident over earth is present as PAR (photosynthetically active radiation).
Energy flow in an ecosystem is always unidirectional or one way, i.e., solar radiations – producers – herbivores – carnivores. It cannot pass in the reverse direction. There is decrease in the content and flow of energy with the rise in trophic level because only 10% of energy is transferred from one trophic level to the next. Producer biomass (1000 K cal) Herbivore biomass (100 K cal) Carnivore I biomass (10 K cal) Carnivore II biomass (I K cal). Energy flow through different trophic levels
Q.10 Given below are two statements: One is labeled as Assertion (A) and the other is labeled as Reason (R):
Assertion (A): Laterite soil is formed under the conditions of high temperature and high rainfall with alternate wet and dry periods.
Reasons(R): The laterite soils swell greatly and become sticky when wet in rainy season and also known as ‘Self ploughed’.
In the light of the above Statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (E) is the correct explanation of (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R is NOT the correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(4) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
Answer: 3
Laterite soil is formed under conditions of heavy rainfall with alternate wet and dry periods, and high temperature which leads to leaching of soil, leaving only oxides of aluminum and iron. The lacks fertility because of the lower base-exchanging capacity and a lower content of phosphorus, nitrogen, and potassium.
Black soil is known as self-ploughing soil
- It contains or retains moisture in it
- It also develops cracks during summer that helps to expose to sunlight and water during monsoon
- It can retain water up to high capacity
- Swells and becomes sticky when wet
Q.11 Histogram is associated with which one of the following data distribution
(1) Discrete frequency distribution
(2) Continious frequency distribution
(3) Log-normal frequency distribution
(4) Un-classified data
Answer: 2
Q.12 Which of these is not a type of federal state?
(1) Compromised
(2) Imposed
(3) Composite
(4) Centralised
Answer: 3
Q.13 Sand dunes formed as long elongated ridges oriented at right angles to the wind direction are known as:
(1) Star dunes
(2) Barchans
(3) Transverse dunes
(4) Seifs
Answer: 3
Q.14 Read the following statement regarding Hypsometric curve
(A) It shows the area – height relationship of a drainage basin.
(B) A convex curve indicates that bulk of the basin’s area remains at relatively low elevation.
(C) A concave curve in characterized by diffusive hill slope processes such as land sliding, soil creep etc.
(D) The simple way to characterize the shape of hypsometric curve for any drainage basin is to calculate hypsometric integral (HD)
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) (A), (B) and (C) are correct
(2) (B) and (C) are correct
(3) (A) and (D) are correct
(4) (A), (B), (C) and (D) are correct
Answer: 3
Q.15 Given below are two statements: One is labeled as Assertion (A) and the other is labeled as Reason (R)
Assertion (A): The land capability approach is that where land was graded according to its suspectibility to soil erosion under differing farming and forestry systems of production.
Reason(R): The most demanding system of production would therefore concentrate on the best and the most extensively on the poorest land.
In the light of the above Statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(4) (A) is not correct but (B) is correct
Answer: 2
Q.16 Who according to Hartshorne had set the direction of Geographic thought for the future?
(1) Huntington E.W.
(2) Videl de la Blache
(3) E Semple
(4) Van Richthofen
Answer: 4
Q.17 Which one of the following recycle periods is correct for oxygen?
(1) 100 years
(2) 2000 years
(3) 1000 years
(4) 500 years
Answer: 2
Q.18 Identify the processes of heating of ocean water.
(A) Absorption of radiation from the sun
(B) Transformation of kinetic energy
(C) Melting of polar ice
(D) Violation of Ocean laws
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) (A) and (C) only
(2) (B) and (C) only
(3) (A) and (B) only
(4) (C) and (D) only
Answer: 3
Q.19 Two dimensional diagrams are also known as
(1) Size
(2) Volume
(3) Ratio
(4) Area
Answer: 4
Two dimensional diagrams are also known as surface diagrams or area diagrams.
Q.20 Given below are two statements: One is labeled as Assertion (A) and the other is labeled as Reason (R):
Assertion (A): Von theunen argued that the sectoral fields are the most irrational, reducing the time spent by the farmers in travelling around the farm.
Reasons (R): Sectoral fields are not common but they are used in varying forming systems and environments. .
In the light of the above Statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) in NOT the correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) in correct but (R) in not correct
(4) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
Answer: 4
Q.21 Match List I with List II:
| List I – Mountain passes | List II – State |
| (A) The Banihal Pass | (I) Uttarkhand |
| (B) The Bara Lacha La Pass | (II) Sikkim |
| (C) The Jelap La Pass | (III) Jammu and Kashmir |
| (D) The Lipu Lekh Pass | (IV) Himachal Pradesh |
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
| A | B | C | D | |
| (1) | I | IV | III | II |
| (2) | II | I | IV | III |
| (3) | III | II | IV | I |
| (4) | III | IV | II | I |
Answer: 4
(A) The Banihal Pass – Jammu and Kashmir
(B) The Bara Lacha La Pass – Himachal Pradesh
(C) The Jelap La Pass – Sikkim
(D) The Lipu Lekh Pass – Uttarkhand
Q.22 Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R):
Assertion (A): Aleutian Islands are a site of Volcanic eruptions,
Reasons (R): Convergent plate margins are sites of volcanic eruptions.
In the light of the above Statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is correct but (F) is not correct
(4 (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
Answer: 2
Q.23 In which of the following maps average slope and relative relief are shown simultarcously
(1) Trachographic map
(2) Planimetric map
(3) Hypsometric map
(4) Morphological map
Answer: 1
Q.24 The Arab scholar who made corrections to Ptolemy’s book was
(1) Ibn – Batuta
(2) Ibn Khaldun
(3) Al-Masudi
(4) Al-Idrisi
Answer: 4
Q.25 Given below are two statements:
Statement I: The Darwinian theory of origin of species almost conform to the law of uniformitarianism.
Statement II: There are heritable variations in the individual species.
In the light of the above Statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
(2) Both Statement and Statement II are incorrect
(3) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect is incorrect but Statement II is correct
(4) Statement is incorrect but Statement II is correct
Answer: 1
Q.26 Consider the following statements regarding the weaver’s method of crop combination.
(A) He proposed a method of analysis superior to simple inspection of the relative weights of the enterprises in a given area.
(B) He added a time dimension to the notion that Britain’s best and worst agricultural land has not changed during last century.
(C) He sought to find the number of enterprises that minimized the difference between the actual and theoretical enterprise combination
(D) He adopted a measure of yield defined as the potential production of one acre of good average farmland under good management
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) (A), (B) and (C) only
(2) (A), (C) and (D) only
(3) (A) and (B) only
(4) (A) and (C) only
Answer: 4
Q.27 International boundary between India and Pakistan was demarcated after the partition. Which type of boundary in this
(1) Cultural
(2) Complex
(3) Antecedent
(4) Consequent
Answer: 1,4
Q.28 The rigid waves surrounding the Geosynclines were called by kober as
(1) Kratogen
(2) Orogen
(3) Primarumph
(4) Endrumph
Answer: 1
Q.29 Which one of the following curves is correct to show the cumulative frequency distribution
(1) Frequency curve
(2) Ogive
(3) Log-normal eurve
(4) Semi-log curve
Answer: 2
Ogive:
An ogive, sometimes called a cumulative frequency polygon, is a type of frequency polygon that shows cumulative frequencies. In other words, the cumulative percents are added on the graph from left to right.
An ogive graph plots cumulative frequency on the y-axis and class boundaries along the x-axis. It’s very similar to a histogram, only instead of rectangles, an ogive has a single point marking where the top right of the rectangle would be. It is usually easier to create this kind of graph from a frequency table.
Q.30 Who among the following scholars advocated a policy of deliberate imbalanced development?
(A) G. Myrdal
(B) AO. Hirschman
(C) A.G. Frank
(D) R. Nurke
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) (A) only
(2) (B) only
(3) (C) only
(4) (D) only
Answer: 2
Q.31. Which one of the following components does NOT match with the Darwinian theory of origin of species?
(1) Natural hazard
(2) Natural selection
(3) Adoptation
(4) Survival of the fittest
Answer: 1
Q.32 Given below are two statements:
Statement I: The consumption of oxygen has increased after the Industrial Revolution in 1860.
Statement II: The Brazil and India uses more oxygen annually than other countries of the world.
In the light of the above Statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
(3) Statement I is correct but Statement II is false
(4) Statement I incorrect but Statement II is true
Answer: 3
Q.33 Digitizing or scanning are example of which GIS procedure:
(1) Data output
(2) Data acquisition
(3) Edge matching
(4) Error detection
Answer: 2
Q.34 Which of the following statements are true for vector data models in GIS.
(A) It is a simple data model and has low cartographic output quality
(B) It is a compact data structure and has high cartographic output quality
(C) It is characterized by case of data processing
(D) It is cheap data collection process as it was less expensive technology
Choose the appropriate answer from the options given below:
(1) (A) only
(2) (B) only
(3) (C) only
(4) (D) only
Answer: 2
Q.35 Which among the following is an example of a nodal region
(1) Damodar Valley Region
(2) National Capital Region
(3) Western Ghat Region
(4) Upper ganga – Yamuna doab region
Answer: 2
Q.36 Which one of the following surface area covered by a solar beam of 1 m width at noon with vertical sunshine?
(1) 1 m width
(2) 4 m width
(3) 45 m width
(4) 90 m width
Answer: 1
Q.37 Which of the following earthquake waves are more destructive at the epicenter?
(1) S-Waves
(2) P-Waves
(3) R-Waves
(4) L-Waves
Answer: 4 (1)
Q.38 ‘Zone of assimilation’ and ‘Zone of discard’ these terms are related to the delimitation of
(1) Shape of a city
(2) Function of a city
(3) CBD of a city
(4) Migration trends of a city
Answer: 3
Q.39 Given below are two statements:
Statement I: All moving objects, by virtue of their motion are capable of doing work.
Statement II: Potential energy is the energy of motion.
In the light of the above Statements. Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
(3) Statement I in correct but Statement II is false
(4) Statement is incorrect but Statement TI in true
Answer: 3
Potential energy is the latent energy in an object at rest, and is one of two forms of energy. The other form, kinetic energy, is the energy expressed by an object in motion. … The actual potential energy of an object depends on its position relative to other objects.
Q.40 Which one of the following techniques is correct to show inequality of two given distribution
(1) Rn statistics
(2) X2 test
(3) Correlation Coefficient
(4) Lorenz curve
Answer: 4
Lorenz curve is a graphical representation of the distribution of income or of wealth. It was developed by Max O. Lorenz in 1905 for representing inequality of the wealth distribution.
Q.41. Given below are two statements: One is labeled as Assertion (A) and the other is labeled as Reason (R):
Assertion (A): The globalization of production is concomitant to the globalization of trade, as one can’t function without the other
Reasons (R): The scale, volume and efficiency of international trade have all continued to increase since the 1970s due to ongoing process of global space / time convergence.
In the light of the above Statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (It) is the correct explanation of (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) in NOT the correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(4) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
Answer: 1
Q.42 Concept of ‘Primate City’ was given by Jefferson in
(1) 1929
(2) 1938
(3) 1939
(4) 1940
Answer: 3
Q.43 Match List I with List II :
List I – (Settlement)
List II – (Pattern)
(I) Uniform
(II) Random
(III) More clustered than uniform
(IV) Clustered
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
| A | B | C | D | |
| (1) | II | I | IV | III |
| (2) | I | II | IV | III |
| (3) | II | I | III | IV |
| (4) | II | IV | I | III |
Answer: 1
Q.44 Which one of the following percentage of frequencies between the range of 0 to + 1.00 (σ) standard deviation
(1) 34.13%
(2) 38.23%
(3) 46.20%
(4) 47.73%
Answer: 1
Q.45 What is not true about International trade in post – globalization phase:
(1) It has enhanced the spatial integration of world economy.
(2) Role of digital technologies in facilitation of trade has become increasing important.
(3) Regional comparative advantage is on decline.
(4) The ability of a country to compete in international trade and economy is highly dependent on the transport system as well as trade facilitation frame work.
Answer: 3
Q.46 Which among the following statement are true for deceleration in agricultural growth in Post reform period.
(A) Deceleration in public and general investment in agriculture.
(B) Dwindling farm size
(C) Failure to develop new technologies
(D) Progressive land reforms
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) (A), (B). (C) and (D)
(2) (A) and (B) only
(3) (B) and (D) only
(4) (A). (B) and (C) only
Answer: 4
Q.47 Match List I with List II:
| List I | List II |
| (A) Heartland | (I) Van Valkerburg |
| (B) Rimland | (II) Ratzel |
| (C) Classification of state | (III) Spykman |
| (D) Law of territorial growth of states | (IV) Mackinder |
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
| A | B | C | D | |
| (1) | IV | III | I | II |
| (2) | III | IV | II | I |
| (3) | I | II | III | IV |
| (4) | II | I | IV | III |
Answer: 1
Q.48 Identify the person who defined pollution as
“The presence at large of substances, or energy patterns which have been involuntarily produced, have outlived their purpose have escaped by accident, or have unforeseen effects, in quantities which harm his (man’s) health or so offended him”.
(1) Lord Kenett
(2) DM. Dixon
(3) R.F. Dasmann
(4) A. Goudie
Answer: 1
Q.49 Study in social and health issues, domestic politics and security issues and international diplomacy is new trend in political Geography. It is termed an
(1) Neo – Politics
(2) Meta Geoplolitics
(3) Mega – Politics
(4) Developmental – Geopolitics
Answer: 2
Meta Geoplolitics provides a more nuanced treatment of the determinants of state power in terms of seven crucial capacities that make up national power. The breakdown of these capabilities is as follows: 1. social and health issues, 2. domestic politics, 3. economics, 4. the environment, 5. science and human potential, 6. military and security issues, and 7. international diplomacy.
Q.50 Match List I with List II:
| List I-(Book Name) | List II- (Authors) |
| (A) Fundamentals of Ecology | (I) H.K. Gupta |
| (B) India’s Water Wealth | (II) D.N. Wadia |
| (C) Geology of India | (III) E.P. Odum |
| (D) Dams and Earthqakes | (IV) K.L Rao |
| A | B | C | D | |
| (1) | III | II | IV | I |
| (2) | III | IV | II | I |
| (3) | II | III | I | IV |
| (4) | IV | I | II | III |
Answer: 2
Q.51 Given below are two statements: One is labeled as Assertion (A) and the other is labeled as Reason (R):
Assertion (A): In areas of intensive subsistence agriculture, animal husbandary is a meager sideline of crop farming.
Reasons (R): Throughout the region, the farmers are handicapped in raising cattle due to lack of scientific methods of breeding the animals.
In the light of the above Statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) in the correct explanation of (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false
(4) (A) is false but (R) is true
Answer: 2
Q.52 An introduction to the ‘Application of Geography to History’ and ‘The Geographical Distribution of Mankind’ are the work of:
(1) Card Ritter
(2) Friedrich Ratzel
(3) Vidal de la Blache
(4) Alfred Hettner
Answer: 2
- 53 Which one of the following processes is related to absorption of inorganic salts and water by plant roots?
(1) Oxidation
(2) Osmosis
(3) Hydration
(4) Hydrolysis
Answer: 3
Q.54 Given below are two statements: One is labeled as Assertion (A) and the other is labeled as Reason (R):
Assertion (A): At present the government sector is the largest consumer of information technology (IT) services in India.
Reasons (R): The Indian companies have out performed MNC’s in the total revenue and even IT export market share.
In the light of the above Statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(4) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
Answer: 2
Q.55 Which of the following groups of landforms is produced by erosion?
(1) Playa, Pinnacles. Pot Holes
(2) Arate. Kame. Levees
(3) Dramlin. Fijord. Wave built Platform
(4) Drip stones, Sinkholes. U-Shaped Valley
Answer: 1
Q.56 Match List I with List II:
| List I – Salts in sea water | List II – Amount in sea water (%) |
| (A) Sodium Chloride | (I) 3.807% |
| (B) Magnesium Chloride | (II) 27.213% |
| (C) Magnesium Sulphate | (III) 1.260% |
| (D) Calcium Sulphate | (IV) 1.658% |
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
| A | B | C | D | |
| (1) | II | I | IV | III |
| (2) | II | I | III | IV |
| (3) | I | III | IV | II |
| (4) | I | II | IV | III |
Answer: 1
| Salts | Amounts (‰) |
| 1. Sodium Chloride | 27.213 |
| 2. Magnesium Chloride | 3.807 |
| 3. Magnesium Sulphate | 1.658 |
| 4. Calcium Sulphate | 1.260 |
| 5. Potasium Sulphate | 0.863 |
| 6. Calcium Carbonate | 0.123 |
| 7. Magnesium Bromide | 0.075 |
Q.57 Which of the following is not associated with political Geography
(A) I. Bowman
(B) R. Johnston
(C) F. Ratzel
(D) H.J. Mackinder
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) (A) only
(2) (A) and (B) only
(3) (B) only
(4) (B) and (C) only
Answer: 3
Q.58 There are three well – defined phases in International trade. The second phase, which is market with mobility of factors of production, remained in focus during
(1) 1950s and 1060s
(2) 1960s and 1970s
(3) 1970s – 1990s
(4) 1990s onward
Answer: 3
Q.59 Identify the correct Relative Humidity (%) of an air mass with saturation mixing ratio at 20°C is 20 grams and H2O vapour content is 5 grams
(1) 15%
(2) 30%
(3) 25%
(4) 50%
Answer: 3
RH= 5/20 * 100
RH=25%
Q.60 Match List I with List II
| List I – Land Forms | List II – Agents of Denudations |
| (A) Monadnocks | (I) Wind |
| (B) Blind Valley | (II) Glacier |
| (C) Drumlin | (III) River |
| (D) Dreikantes | (IV) Groundwater |
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
| A | B | C | D | |
| (1) | III | IV | II | I |
| (2) | II | III | IV | I |
| (3) | I | IV | III | II |
| (4) | IV | II | I | III |
Answer: 1
Q.61 Rimland theory was presented by M.J. Spykman in
(1) 1941
(2) 1942
(3) 1943
(4) 1944
Answer: 4
Spykman propounded the Rimland theory in his book – The Geography of Peace in 1944
Q.62 Given below are two statements: One is labeled as Assertion (A) and the other is labeled a Reason (R):
Assertion (A): Globalization has resulted in widening inequalities between the forward and backward states in India.
Reasons (R): The organized sector provided 63% of net domestic product but provided employment to 93% of work-force.
In the light of the above Statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(2) Bath (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(4) (A) is not correct but (E) is correct
Answer: 3
Q.63 Who enunciated the four stages in the evolution of space economy?
(A) John Fried mann
(B) Karl Marx
(C) Ronald F. Abler
(D) August Losch
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) (A) only
(2) (B) only
(3) (C) only
(4) (D) only
Answer: 1
In 1966 John Fried mann developed the core-periphery four-stage model of regional development, explaining that “where economic growth is sustained over long time periods, its incidence works towards a progressive integration of the space economy”.
Q.64 Which of the following two sources carbon is released?
(A) Volcanic eruption
(B) Combustim of fossil fuels
(C) Landslide
(D) Open mining
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) (A) and (B) only
(2) (B) and (C) only
(3) (A) and (C) only
(4) (B) and (D) only
Answer: 1
Q.65 Which one of the following methods commonly used to estimate numerically the change taking place in one sector or industry bringing about changes in other sectors of the economy?
(A) Cluster analysis
(B) Econometrics
(C) Input-Output analysis
(D) Principal Component analysis
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
(1) (A) only
(2) (B) only
(3) (C) only
(4) (D) only
Answer: 3
Q.66 Given below are two statements One is labeled as Assertion (A) and the other is labeled as Reason (R):
Assertion (A): Thermal infrared energy in remote sensing is sensed by radiometers
Reasons (R): Thermal infrared can neither be seen by human eyes nor can be photographed.
In the light of the above Statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(4) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
Answer: 1
Q.67 Given below are two statements: One is labeled as Assertion (A) and the other is labeled as Reason (R):
Assertion (A): The locational – climatic factors put Mackinder’s Heartland at a relative disadvantage as compared to certain other larger and well to do areas of the world
Reasons (R): Heartland was a region of permanent difficulties because of its location and resultant extreme climate
In the light of the above Statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(4) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
Answer: 1
Q.68 (Types of Clouds)
(A) Altostratus
(B) Stratocumulus
(C) Stratus
(D) Cirus
Choose the correct answer from the options given below: (upward sequence)
(1) (A), (B), (D), (C)
(2) (C), (B), (A), (D)
(3) (B), (C), (A), (D)
(4) (C), (B), (D), (A)
Answer: 2
Q.69 Which one of the following codes correctly show the optimal location of profitability in different spatial cost / revenue situations in diagram below
(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) D
Answer: 2
Q.70 Which one of the following latitudes has ‘no surplus’ and ‘no deficit’ heat balance in Northern Hemisphere?
(1) 18°
(2) 23½°
(3) 38°
(4) 66½
Answer: 3
You can see in the graph below that there is a surplus of energy between 35˚ North and 35˚ South. In this region, incoming insolation exceeds outgoing radiation.
There’s an energy deficit between 35˚ North and the North Pole, and between 35˚ South and the South Pole. Here the outgoing radiation exceeds incoming insolation.
Q.71 Which of the following statement is/are not true for green revolution in India?
(A) Green Revolution ensured that there was no regional disparity.
(B) Green Revolution ensured increased productivity among selected crops.
(C) Green Revolution ensured uniform earnings among all farmers.
(D) Green Revolution ensured mechanization in farms.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) A B C and D
(2) Only A
(3) Only B
(4) Only D
Answer: 2
Q.72 Given below are two statements: One is labeled as Assertion (A) and the other is labeled as Reason (R)
Assertion (A): Globalization raises the degree of independence resulting in lesser control over the domestic economy and loss of economic sovereignty.
Reasons (R): Globalization promotes consumption cultures that may not be in consonance with the lifestyles and values of all the countries. .
In the light of the above Statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) in correct but (R) in not correct
(4) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
Answer: 2
Q.73 Who among the following geographers laid down the foundation of dichotomy of General versus special Geography?
(1) Immanuel Kant
(2) Sebastian Munster
(3) Peter Apian
(4) Bernhard Vareniun
Answer: 4
Q.74 The ‘Arabian Sea Branch’ and ‘Bay of Bengal Branch of Indian monsoon merge together over which of the following region.
(1) The Punjab and adjoining Himalayas
(2) Central India
(3) North East Indian States
(4) Western Ghats
Answer: 1
Q.75 Which one of the following rivers does not flow through Himachal Pradesh
(1) Beas
(2) Chenab
(3) Jhelum
(4) Ravi
Answer: 1
Q.76 Which one of the following types of landforms differs from the other on the basis of its mode of formation?
(1) Rapids
(2) Escarpments
(3) Questar
(4) Dripstones
Answer: 4
Q.77 “Hyper markets” are shopping centres located
(1) Near the CBD
(2) Near rail-road junction
(3) Out of town
(4) Near hospitals
Answer: 3
Q.78 Which one of the following connectivity matrices is correct to show the given network of six nodes?
Answer: 2
Q.79 Match List I with List II:
| Lint I-(Name of Author) | List II – (Name of Book) |
| (A) A. Weber | (I) Industrial Location: An Economic Geographical Analysis. |
| (B) E.M. Hoover | (II) Behaviour and Location : Foundations for a Geographic and Dynamic Location theory |
| (C) A. Pred | (III) The Location of Economic Activity |
| (D) D.M. Smith | (IV) Theory of the Location of Industries |
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
| A | B | C | D | |
| (1) | I | II | III | IV |
| (2) | II | III | IV | I |
| (3) | III | IV | I | II |
| (4) | IV | III | II | I |
Answer: 4
Q.80 Which one of the following elevations upto that Koppen’s Af type of climate region extends from the mean sea level?
(1) 1000 m
(2) 1500 m
(3) 2000 m
(4) 2500 m
Answer: 1
Q.81 Given below are two statements:
Statement I: Due to an increase of pressure near the ocean bottom, the density also increases from surface towards the depth
Statement II: If light surface water is driven away by winds, dense sub-surface water upwells on the surface
In the light of the above Statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below
(1) Both Statement and Statement Il are true
(2) Beith Statement and Statement 1 are false
(3) Statement is correct but Statement II is false
(4) Statement lis incorrect but Statement II is true
Answer: 1
Q.82 Which one of the fallowing is the correct sequence of Contributors in the development of Greek Geography?
(1) Anaxiamander. Hipparchus, Herodotus, Eratosthenes
(2) Eratosthenes, Herodotus, Hipparchus, Anaximander
(3) Anaximander. Herodotus. Eratosthenes, Hipparchus
(4) Hipparchus, Anaximander, Herodotus, Eratosthenes
Answer: 3
| Scholar | Lifespan (Birth & Death) |
| 1. Homer | · (750BC – 700 BC) |
| 2. Thales | · (624 BC – 545 BC) |
| 3. Anaximender | · (610 BC – 546 BC) |
| 4. Hecataeus | · (550 BC – 476 BC) |
| 5. Herodotus | · (485 BC- 425 BC) |
| 6. Plato | · (428 BC – 347 BC) |
| 7. Aristotle | · (384 BC – 322 BC) |
| 8. Erathosthenes | · (276 BC – 194 BC) |
| 9. Polybius | · (210 BC – 128 BC) |
| 10. Hipparchus | · (190 BC – 120 BC) |
| 11. Posidonius | · (135 BC – 50 BC) |
Q.83 The slope replacement was propounded by
(1) A. Strahler
(2) A. Penck
(3) W. M. Davis
(4) H. Wood
Answer: 2
Q.84 “Dry point” settlements are common in
(1) Deltas
(2) Mountain regions
(3) Deserts
(4) Rain shadow areas
Answer: 1
Q.85 Given below are two statements: One labeled as Assertion (A) and the other labeled as Reason (R)
Assertion (A): The moon’s high tide time lag in each day is 50 minutes.
Reasons (R): The total duration required to complete the two cycles of high and low tides at any place in 24 hours 50 minutes.
In the light of the above Statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) in correct but (R) in not correct
(4) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
Answer: 1
Q.86 Given below are two statements: One is labeled as Assertion (A) and the other ia labeled as Reason (R)
Assertion (A): Build operate transfer (BOT) is a scheme under which public operators are invited to construct roads and bridges.
Reasons (R): The national highways act has been amended to facilitate private investment under (BOT) scheme.
In the light of the above Statements. Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) in correct but (R) in not correct
(4) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
Answer: 3
Build–operate–transfer (BOT) or build–own–operate–transfer (BOOT) is a form of project delivery method, usually for large-scale infrastructure projects, wherein a private entity receives a concession from the public sector (or the private sector on rare occasions) to finance, design, construct, own, and operate a facility stated in the concession contract. This enables the project proponent to recover its investment, operating and maintenance expenses in the project.
Q.87 Match List I with List II:
| List I – Theories | List II – Proponents |
| (A) Thermal Contraction Theory | (1) James Hutton |
| (B) Theory of Geosyncline | (II) Jeffreys. J |
| (C) Theory of Seafloor spreading | (III) Hall and Dana |
| (D) Doctrine of Uniformatarianism | (IV) Harry Hess |
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
| A | B | C | D | |
| (1) | I | II | III | IV |
| (2) | IV | III | I | II |
| (3) | III | II | I | IV |
| (4) | II | III | IV | I |
Answer: 4
Q.88 The Characteristics of the countries engaged in subsistence farming include
(A) Developing economy
(B) High density of population
(C) Low level of technology
(D) High developed international trade
Choose the correct answer from the options given below
(1) (A), (B) and (D)
(2)(B), (C) and (D)
(3) (B) and (C)
(4) (A), (B) and (C)
Answer: 4
Q.89 ‘Household register’ in Japan was known by the name
(1) Takeshi
(2) Yumitava
(3) Koseki
(4) Dketana
Answer: 3
- 90 Match List I with List II:
| List I – Deposits | List II – Agents |
| (A) Moraines | (I) Wind |
| (B) Silt | (II) Glacier |
| (C) Loess | (1II) Underground water |
| (D) Drip stones | (IV) River |
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
| A | B | C | D | |
| (1) | II | IV | I | III |
| (2) | I | III | II | IV |
| (3) | III | II | IV | I |
| (4) | IV | I | III | II |
Answer: 1
Comprehension:
Instruction: Please read the following passage and answer the questions 91-95.
Tropical cyclones are closed low – pressure system, generally about 650 km in diameter, which bring violent winds, torrential rainfall and thunderstorms. Generally, they contain a central region, the eye, with a diameter of about ten kilometres with light winds and more or less lightly clouded sky. In order for cyclones to develop various conditions need to be fulfilled. There must be a plentiful supply of moisture, and for this reason distribution of cyclones is closely related to those regions where the highest sea – surface temperatures are found i.e. the western portion of the tropical oceans in late summer with temperature of at least 27°C. This moisture provides the necessary latent heat to drive the storm and to provide the rainfall. Tropical cyclones tend to occur mainly in between the Tropic of Capricorn and Tropic of cancer except the equatorial region i.e 5° on both side of the equator because closer than that to the Equator the Coriolis parameter approaches Zero. The main cyclone activity in the Northern Hemisphere is in late summer and autumn during the time of the equatorial trough’s northern displacement.
Q.91 Which one of the following elements is not associated with tropical cyclones?
(1) Violent winds
(2) Torrential rainfall
(3) Thunderstorms
(4) Dense fog
Answer: 4
Q.92 Which of the following is the regional name of tropical cyclone in West Indies?
(1) Willy Willy
(2) Hurricane
(3) Typhoon
(4) Cyclone
Answer: 2
Q.93 The cyclone activity in the Northern Hemisphere is associated with
(1) Spring and Winter
(2) Spring and Autumn
(3) Autumn and Winter
(4) Summer and Autumn
Answer: 4
Q.94 Which of the following conditions is essential to develop a tropical cyclone
(1) Low wind speed
(2) Mixing of cold and warm ocean currents
(3) Plentiful supply of moisture
(4) Mixing of Saline and sweet water
Answer: 3
95 Which one of the following sea-surface temperature is ideal for the formation of tropical cyclone?
(1) 27°C
(2) 20°C
(3) 17°C
(4) 15°C
Answer: 1
Comprehension:
Passage
Consider the following data and answer questions: 96 – 100
Q.96 Which one of the following is the cumulative frequency for the class limit 401 – 500 from the given data set.
(1) 24
(2) 40
(3) 16
(4) 80
Answer: 4 (2)
| SL No | Class Limit | Frequency | Cumulative Frequency |
| 1 | 101-200 | 4 | 4 |
| 2 | 201-300 | 12 | 16 |
| 3 | 301-400 | 24 | 40 |
| 4 | 401-500 | 40 | 80 |
Q.97 Which one of the following is the cumulative frequency of the entire data set
(1) 125
(2) 24
(3) 40
(4) 118
Answer: 1
| SL No | Class Limit | Frequency | Cumulative Frequency |
| 1 | 101-200 | 4 | 4 |
| 2 | 201-300 | 12 | 16 |
| 3 | 301-400 | 24 | 40 |
| 4 | 401-500 | 40 | 80 |
| 5 | 501-600 | 16 | 96 |
| 6 | 601-700 | 12 | 108 |
| 7 | 701-800 | 10 | 118 |
| 8 | 801-900 | 5 | 123 |
| 9 | 901-1000 | 2 | 125 |
Q.98 Which one of the following is the relative frequency in percentage for class limit 301- 400 from the given data set.
(1) 18.2
(2) 19.2
(3) 20.2
(4) 24.2
Answer: 2
| SL No | Class Limit | Frequency | Cumulative Frequency |
| 1 | 101-200 | 4 | 4 |
| 2 | 201-300 | 12 | 16 |
| 3 | 301-400 | 24 | 40 |
| 4 | 401-500 | 40 | 80 |
| 5 | 501-600 | 16 | 96 |
| 6 | 601-700 | 12 | 108 |
| 7 | 701-800 | 10 | 118 |
| 8 | 801-900 | 5 | 123 |
| 9 | 901-1000 | 2 | 125 |
RF= 24/125 *100
RF= 19.2
99 Which one of the following is the mode value for the given data set
(1) 483
(2) 125
(3) 400.5
(4) 441
Answer: 4
Q.100 Which one of the following is the arithmetic mean value for the given data set
(1) 125
(2) 40
(3) 483
(4) 603
Answer: 3