JUNE 2014 PAPER 3 GEOGRAPHY CBSE UGC NET
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So, This is the official Questions Paper and Answer Key for the paper 3 geography conducted on JUNE 2014, taken from www.cbsenet.nic.in
Note: This paper contains fifty (75) multiple choice questions, each questions carrying two (2) marks. Attempt all of them.
(PDF) For download pdf file of question paper go to the bottom of this post.
Q.1. Lateral Planation Theory of pediment formation was proposed by
(A) Lawson
(B) Davis
(C) Gilbert
(D) McGee
Answer: C
Q.2. Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer from the codes given (UGC NET- JUNE 2014)
| List – I (Books) | List – II (Authors) |
| (A) Geomorphology | (i) Wooldridge and Morgen |
| (B) Essays in Geomorphology | (ii) Strahler |
| (C) Physical Geography | (iii) Lobeck |
| (D) An Outline of Geomorphology | (Iv) Dury |
Codes:
| A | B | C | D | |
| (A) | III | IV | II | I |
| (B) | I | IV | II | III |
| (C) | III | II | IV | I |
| (D) | IV | III | I | II |
Answer: A
Q.3. Which of the following is strongly presumptive faultline scarps? (© www.geographercorner.com/ netset corner)
(A) Superimposed drainage across a fault
(B) Poor correlation between rock resistence and topographic forms
(C) Frequent severe earthquakes
(D) Actual Fault Plane identified along a scarp
Answer: A
Q.4. Paternoster lakes are features typical of:
(A) Lava Plains
(B) Piedmonts
(C) Deserts
(D) Glacial Troughs
Answer: D
Q.5. Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer from the codes given below: (UGC NET- JUNE 2014)
| List – I (Theories of Cavern formation) | List– II (Scholar) |
| (A) Two cycle theory | (i) Davis |
| (B) Water table theory | (ii) Garner |
| (C) Static water zone theory | (iii) Malott |
| (D) Invasion Theory | (iv) Swinnerton |
Codes:
| A | B | C | D | |
| (A) | I | IV | II | III |
| (B) | III | II | IV | I |
| (C) | IV | I | II | III |
| (D) | IV | III | I | II |
Answer: A
Q.6. Which one of the following processes is typical to glacial erosion?
(A) Plucking
(B) Hydrolic action
(C) Deflation
(D) Corrosion
Answer: A
Q.7. Given below are two statements, one labelled as assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R). Select your answer from the codes given below:
Assertion (A): Deep chemical decay of rocks is one of the outstanding features of humid tropical regions.
Reason (R): Intensity of chemical weathering depends to a large degree upon an abundance of water and high air temperatures.
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(D) (R) is true but (A) is false.
Answer: A
Q.8. Crickmay, while disagreeing with Davis, supplanted peneplain with the term:
(A) Pediplain
(B) Panplane
(C) Etch plain
(D) Structural plain
Answer: B
Q.9. What is the correct Sequence of the cloud types in a warm front away from its trailing edge?
(A) Altostratus – Nimbostratus – Cirrus – Cirrostratus
(B) Cirrostratus – Nimbostratus – Altostratus – Cirrus
(C) Cirrus – Nimbostratus – Altostratus – Cirrostratus
(D) Nimbostratus – Alto Stratus – Cirrostratus – cirrus.
Answer: D
Q.10. Westerlies are examples of
(A) Macro atmospheric motions
(B) Tornados
(C) Microscale atmospheric motions
(D) Gusts
Answer: A
Q.11. Match the following List – I with List – II and select the correct answer from the code given below (UGC NET- JUNE 2014)
List – I
(A) Temparature falls with height
(B) Reflects radio waves back to earth
(C) Contain most of the ozone
(D) Fall in temperature stops
List– II
(i) Ionosphere
(ii) Stratosphere
(iii) Tropopause
(iv) Troposphere
Codes:
| A | B | C | D | |
| (A) | IV | II | I | III |
| (B) | III | II | IV | I |
| (C) | IV | I | II | III |
| (D) | IV | III | I | II |
Answer: C
Q.12. If the elevation of the sun declines, the albedo will –
(A) Decline
(B) Increase
(C) Remain the same
(D) No change
Answer: B
Q.13. Seasonal contrast in pressure between land and sea gives rise to:
(A) Monsoons
(B) Westerly winds
(C) Land and Sea breezes
(D) Trade winds
Answer: A
Q.14. V. Bjerknes Model is related with:
(A) Origin of anticyclones
(B) Origin of Mid Latitude Cyclones
(C) Origin of Tropical Cyclones
(D) Origin of monsoon
Answer: B
Q.15. Which one of the following is not correct?
(A) Cold front is marked with triangular spikes.
(B) Warm front is marked with Semicircles.
(C) A fast advancing warm front can cause violent lifting.
(D) The tornados develop along squall line.
Answer: C
(© www.geographercorner.com/ netset corner)
Q.16. Some heat is received by the atmosphere even after Sunset from:
(A) Invisible Solar radiation
(B) Latent heat
(C) Radioactive processes
(D) Terrestrial radiation
Answer: D
Q.17. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R). Select your answer from the codes given below:
Assertion (A): The growth of grass and other vegetative cover is limited to selvas.
Reason (R): The separate crowns of trees coalesce and form a thick canopy above the forest floor.
Codes:
(A) Both (A) andü (R) are true and ü (R) is correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) andü (R) are true, but (R) is not correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(D) (R) is true but, (A) is false.
Answer: A
Q.18. ‘Montreal Protocol’ is related to
(A) Global Warming
(B) Ozone Depletion
(C) Air Pollution
(D) Water Pollution
Answer: B
Q.19. The objective of Kyoto Protocol was to reduce green house gas emission by:
(A) An average of 10 percent below 1995 level by the year 2010
(B) An average of 8 percent below 1998 level by the year 2012
(C) An average of 20 percent below 1997 level by the year 2009
(D) An average of 5 percent below 1990 level by the year 2012
Answer: D
Q.20. Xerophytes can tolerate and stand against:
(A) High temperature
(B) Severe Cold
(C) Humidity
(D) The drought Conditions
Answer: D
Q.21. Consider the following statements:
(1) Ozone is found mostly in the stratosphere.
(2) Ozone layer lies 55–75 kms above the surface of the earth.
(3) Ozone absorbs ultraviolet rays from the Sun.
(4) Ozone layer has no significance for life on the earth.
Which of the above statements are correct? (© www.geographercorner.com/ netset corner)
(A) 1 and 3
(B) 2 and 4
(C) 2 and 3
(D) 1 and 4
Answer: A
Q.22. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R). Select your answer from the codes given below:
Assertion (A): Oceanic salinity is low in the equatorial region
Reason (R): Equatorial region is characterized by heavy rainfall, cloudiness and humidity.
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false but (R) is true.
Answer: A
Q.23. The statement – “Systematic geography must move into theoretical spheres and Regional Geography into a search for generic and not unique studies” was made by
(A) Richard Hartshorne
(B) Isaiah Bowman
(C) William Bunge
(D) Peter Haggett
Answer: C
Q.24. In the development of Quantitative Revolution, a new field of study called ‘Social Physics’ stating that “dimensions of society are analogous to the physical dimensions and include numbers of people, distance and time” was introduced by
(A) J. Q. Stewart
(B) Edward Ullman
(C) W.L. Garrison
(D) William Warntz
Answer: A
Q.25. Given below are two statements, one laballed as Assertion (A), and the other labelled as Reason (R):
Assertion (A): The major Thrust of Quantitative Revolution is to bring law making, model building and Theorization in Geography.
Reason (R): After the Second World War, young geographers discarded the empirical, descriptive and gazetteer type of Geography by using the mathematical language rather than the language of literature.
Codes:
(A) (A) is correct but (R) is wrong.
(B) (A) is wrong but (R) is correct.
(C) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(D) Both (A) and (R) are wrong.
Answer: C
Q.26. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below: (UGC NET JUNE 2014)
List – I
(A) Theoretical Geography
(B) Geographic Dissemination of Innovations
(C) Methods of Regional Analysis
(D) Human Reponses to Floods
List – II
(i) T. Haggerstrand
(ii) William Bunge
(iii) Gilbert White
(iv) Walter Isard
Codes:
| A | B | C | D | |
| (A) | II | I | IV | III |
| (B) | II | III | IV | I |
| (C) | IV | II | III | I |
| (D) | III | IV | I | II |
Answer: A
Q.27. Match List-I and List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below:
List – I
(a) Political geography
(b) Das Ausland
(c) Major work on China
(d) Visible content of the landscape
List – II
(i) Otto Schluter
(ii) Von Richthofen
(iii) Oscar Peschel
(iv) Friedrich Ratzel
Codes:
A B C D
(A) IV I II III
(B) IV III II I
(C) III IV I II
(D) II I IV III
Answer: B
(© www.geographercorner.com/ netset corner)
Q.28. Which one of the following statements is not true about Humanism in Geography?
(A) Humanism does not treat humans as machines.
(B) Humanistic geography gives importance to human awareness, human consciousness and human creativity.
(C) Humanists accept the reduction of space and place to geometrical concepts of surface.
(D) Humanism developed as criticism against positivism and quantitative revolution.
Answer: C
Q.29. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below (UGC NET JUNE 2014)
List– I (Philosophical approaches)
(i) Idealistic
(ii) Phenomenological
(iii) Radical
(iv) Welfare
List – II (Advocates)
(A) Relph
(B) Harris and Guelke
(C) Smith
(D) Bunge
Codes:
| A | B | C | D | |
| (A) | IV | II | I | III |
| (B) | II | I | IV | III |
| (C) | III | IV | II | I |
| (D) | II | III | I | IV |
Answer: B
Q.30. Who among the following was a strong supporter of Ritter’s teleological ideas?
(A) Guyot
(B) Peschel
(C) Gerland
(D) Ratzel
Answer: A
Q.31. A process of population deconcentration away from large urban settlements to non-metropolitan areas is termed as:
(A) Urban dispersal
(B) Urban sprawl
(C) Counter-urbanization
(D) Sub-urbanization
Answer: C
Q.32. In the acceleration stage of urbanisation the urban population constitutes:
(A) More than 70% of the total population of the state
(B) 25% to 70%
(C) 10% to 25%
(D) Less than 10%
Answer: B
Q.33. The concept of primate city was advanced by
(A) Jefferson
(B) Zift
(C) Mumford
(D) Sjoberg
Answer: A
Q.34. Given below are two statements, one laballed as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R). Select your answer from the codes given below: (UGC NET JUNE 2014)
Assertion (A): Losch’s model is less restrictive than Christoller’s.
Reason (R): Losch treated each function as having a separate range, threshold and hexagonal hinterland.
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanations of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false but (R) is true.
Answer: A
Q.35. Which of the following conditions is characterised by the second stage of Demographic Transition?
(A) Low birth rate, High death rate
(B) High birth rate, High death rate
(C) High birth rate, declining death rate
(D) Low birth rate, Low death rate
Answer: A
Q.36. Match following List-I and List-II and select the correct answer from the codes given below: (UGC NET JUNE 2014)
List – I (Books)
(A) The Nature of Geography
(B) The Urban Question
(C) Social Justice and the City
(D) Locational Analysis in Human Geography
List – II (Authors)
(i) D. Harvey
(ii) P. Haggett
(iii) R. Harthshorne
(iv) M. Castells
Codes:
| A | B | C | D | |
| (A) | IV | I | II | III |
| (B) | III | IV | I | II |
| (C) | I | II | III | IV |
| (D) | II | III | IV | I |
Answer: B
Q.37. ‘Chain migration’ is based on:
(A) Job opportunities
(B) Kinship
(C) Proximity to place of earlier Residence
(D) Combination of (A) and (C)
Answer: B
Q.38. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?
(A) E.W. Burgess – Concept of megalopolis
(B) W. J. Reily – Law of retail gravitation
(C) G. K. Ziff – Rank-size rule
(D) Patrick Geddes – Concept of conurbation
Answer: A
Q.39. . Consider the following statements and select the correct answer from the given codes: (UGC NET JUNE 2014)
(1) Most of the fishing grounds occur in areas where the continental shelf is wide.
(2) Fishing activity is well developed in warm tropical waters.
(3) Mixing of warm and cold currents brings plant nutrients for fish.
(4) Inland fisheries are more significant than other types in India.
Codes:
(A) 1 and 2 are correct.
(B) 1 and 3 are correct.
(C) 2, 3 and 4 are correct.
(D) 1, 2 and 3 are correct.
Answer: D
(© www.geographercorner.com/ netset corner)
Q.40. Given below are two statements, one laballed as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R):
Assertion (A): There are regional disparities in the spatial organisation of economy.
Reason (R): Interactions among inherent factors in economic activities affect the texture of spatial organisations.
In the context of the above two statements, which one of the following is correct?
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation fo (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Answer: A
Q.41. Which one of the following crop practices refers to crop rotation?
(A) Cultivating more than one crop in the same field in different seasons.
(B) Cultivating the same crop in the same field in different seasons.
(C) Cultivating many crops in the same field in one season.
(D) Cultivating one crop in one season followed by a different crop in the next season in the same field.
Answer: D
Q.42. When the raw material used in an industry is gross and ubiquitous, the location of the firm will be:
(A) Near the source of raw material
(B) Anywhere between the source of raw material market
(C) Near the market
(D) Near the capital city
Answer: C
Q.43. In Great Britain a little pulp is produced, but paper making is important, while in Sweden pulp manufacture is far more important than paper making because
(A) Great Britain is technologically advanced as compared to Sweden.
(B) Pulp making is raw material oriented, paper making is more market oriented.
(C) Sweden is a poor country.
(D) Great Britain has plenty of forest resources for paper making.
Answer: B
Q.44. Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer from the codes given below (UGC NET JUNE 2014)
List – I (Location)
(A) Detroit
(B) Yokohama
(C) Akron
(D) Glasgow
List – II (Industry)
(1) Iron and Steel
(2) Synthetic rubber
(3) Ship building
(4) Automobile
Codes:
| A | B | C | D | |
| (A) | 2 | 1 | 3 | 4 |
| (B) | 4 | 3 | 2 | 1 |
| (C) | 3 | 2 | 1 | 4 |
| (D) | 1 | 2 | 3 | 4 |
Answer: B
Q.45. Break-of-bulk point is a place:
(A) where large sized and bulky goods are crushed into.
(B) Where goods are transferred from one mode of transport to another.
(C) Where packaging of the bulky goods is carried out at large scale.
(D) The place meant for the transport of bulky products.
Answer: B
Q.46. Consider the following road network diagram of an area:
Following Road Network Diagram of an Area Select the correct connectivity matrix for the above network.
Answer: B
Q.47. Which one of the following theories emphasizes the policy oriented concepts such as propulsive firms, leading industries and agglomeration?
(A) Central Place Theory
(B) Theory of Industrial location
(C) Growth pole theory
(D) Theory of spatial organization
Answer: C
Q.48. The techniques usually employed for actual delineation of functional regions are:
(A) Flow and gravitational analysis
(B) Simple correlation analysis
(C) Composite index method analysis
(D) Ranking coefficient method analysis
Answer: A
Q.49. The gravity principle in identification of nodal regions states that the interaction between two geographic points is directly related to:
(A) Their masses
(B) Their distance
(C) Their mode of transport
(D) Their size of settlements
Answer: A
Q.50. Match the following table Show Match List-I and List-II (UGC NET JUNE 2014)
List – I (Regional Planners)
(I) V. Nath
(II) Bhat and Rao
(III) Sen Gupta & Sdasyuk
(IV) C.S. Chandra
List – II (Number of major planning regions identified for India)
(a) 13
(b) 19
(c) 11
(d) 15
Codes:
| a | b | c | d | |
| (A) | IV | III | II | I |
| (B) | IV | II | III | I |
| (C) | III | IV | I | II |
| (D) | II | III | IV | I |
Answer: A
Q.51. Given below are two statements; one labelled as Assertion (A) and other labelled as Reason (R):
Assertion (A): A planning region should be large enough to contain a range of resources, conditions and attributes so as to serve a desired degree of economic viability.
Reason (R): Its resource position should be such that a satisfactory level of product combination for consumption and for exchange would be feasible.
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation.
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation.
(C) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false but (R) is true.
Answer: A
Q.52. Preparation of Sub-plans on regional basis was taken up in:
(A) Fourth plan
(B) Fifth plan
(C) Sixth plan
(D) Seventh plan
Answer: B
Q.53. Who among the following presented a framework of economic regions of different orders following the soviet concept of economic regions and production specialisation?
(A) P. Sen Gupta
(B) V. Nath
(C) S.P. Chatterjee
(D) Bhat and Prakasa Rao
Answer: A
Q.54. Which one of the following states experienced the lowest growth rate of literates during 2001-2011?
(A) Tamil Nadu
(B) Nagaland
(C) Kerala
(D) Goa
Answer: C
Q.55. Which one of the following places in India does not get the vertical rays of the Sun?
(A) Srinagar (J & K)
(B) Mumbai
(C) Chennai
(D) Thiruvananthapuram
Answer: A
Q.56. Which one of the following atomic power stations is located in Tamil Nadu?
(A) Tarapur
(B) Kota
(C) Kalpakkam
(D) Narora
Answer: C
Q.57. Which one of the following matches is not-correct?
(A) Himadri – Greater Himalya
(B) Shiwalik – Outer Himalaya
(C) Western Ghatü – Peninsular India
(D) Gondwanaland – Lesser Himalaya
Answer: D
Q.58. Which one of the following major seaports of India does not have natural harbour?
(A) Mumbai
(B) Cochin
(C) Marmagao
(D) Paradeep
Answer: D
Q.59. The member of agro-climatic regions in India as per Planning Commission is
(A) Twelve
(B) Thirteen
(C) Fourteen
(D) Fifteen
Answer: D
Q.60. About three-fourth of manganese ore reserves of India are found in :
(A) Orissa, Madhya Pradesh, Maharastra, Goa
(B) Karnataka, Orissa, Madhya Pradesh, Maharastra
(C) Karnataka, Madhya Pradesh, Goa, Andhra Pradesh
(D) Madhya Pradesh, Maharastra, Andhra Pradesh, Jharkhand
Answer: B
Q.61. Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer from the codes given below: (UGC NET JUNE 2014)
List – I (Statistic)
(A) Standard Distance
(B) Nearest Neighbour
(C) Correlation
(D) Eigen Value
List – II (Analysis)
(i) Principal
(ii) Scatter diagram
(iii) Settlement pattern
(iv) Centrographic measure
Codes:
| A | B | C | D | |
| (A) | iv | iii | ii | i |
| (B) | iv | ii | iii | i |
| (C) | iii | iv | i | ii |
| (D) | ii | iii | iv | i |
Answer: B
Q.62. Which of the following is a GIS operation?
(A) Image displaying
(B) Contrast stretching
(C) Map over laying
(D) Map designing
Answer: C
Q.63. Which of the following diagrams is used to show proportion of different land uses in an area?
(A) Pie
(B) Wind rose
(C) Line
(D) Flow-Chart
Answer: A
Q.64. Mean, median and mode coincide if the distribution of values is
(A) Negativety skewed
(B) Normal
(C) Positivety skewed
(D) Poisson
Answer: B
Q.65. The contour interval followed in SOI Toposheet with 1/50,000 scale is:
(A) 20 Metres
(B) 50 Metres
(C) 100 Metres
(D) 150 Metres
Answer: A
Q.66. Match List – I with List – II and select a correct answer using the codes given below: (UGC NET JUNE 2014)
List – I (Instruments)
(A) GPS base
(B) Pantograph
(C) Planimeter
(D) Stereoscope
List – II (Functions)
(i) Distance and area
(ii) 3-D Vision
(iii) Global location
(iv) Reduction & enlargement
Codes:
| A | B | C | D | |
| (A) | iii | i | iv | ii |
| (B) | ii | iv | iii | i |
| (C) | iii | iv | i | ii |
| (D) | i | ii | iii | iv |
Answer: C
Q.67. The most appropriate sampling Technique to represent the heterogeneous population of a region is:
(A) Cluster
(B) Random stratified
(C) Systematic
(D) Purposive
Answer: B
Q.68. Which one of the following characteristic features of Indian federalism does not have a geographical base?
(A) Vast area size
(B) Physical and cultural diversities
(C) Regional inequalities in socioeconomic development
(D) Division of powers and functions between Union and states
Answer: D
Q.69. Which of the following countries is known as a Unique assemblage of human races in the world?
(A) Union of South Africa
(B) U.S.A.
(C) Indonesia
(D) India
Answer: D
Q.70. ‘Geostrategic model’, dividing the world into ten regions, was propounded by:
(A) P. J. Taylor
(B) John Short
(C) John Agnew
(D) Saul Cohen
Answer: D
Q.71. Match items in List – I with items in List – II and select the correct answer using the codes given below (UGC NET JUNE 2014) (© www.geographercorner.com/ netset corner)
List – I (Name of Administrative Unit)
(A) District
(B) Department
(C) Country
(D) Kreise
List – II (Name of the country)
(1) France
(2) India
(3) Germany
(4) Great Britain
Codes:
| A | B | C | D | |
| (A) | 1 | 2 | 3 | 4 |
| (B) | 4 | 2 | 3 | 1 |
| (C) | 2 | 1 | 4 | 3 |
| (D) | 3 | 2 | 1 | 4 |
Answer: C
Q.72. For measuring the success of changes in electroral boundaries, we use the concept of:
(A) Representation
(B) Malapportionment
(C) Legitimate participation
(D) Non-legitimate participation
Answer: B
Q.73. Welfare approach in geographic studies emphasises spatial variation in–
(A) Socio-Economic development
(B) Public-private partnership in development
(C) Infrastructural development
(D) Quality of life
Answer: D
Q.74. The ‘Cultural Turn’ in geography has been responsible for: (© www.geographercorner.com/ netset corner)
(A) Bringing social and cultural geography closer to each other
(B) Social geography taking over cultural geography.
(C) Creating void between social and cultural geography.
(D) Reducing the significance of Social geography.
Answer: A
Q.75. Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer from the codes given below: (UGC NET JUNE 2014)
List – I (Industry)
(A) Aluminium
(B) Copper smelting
(C) Zink smelting
(D) Silk
List – II (Location)
(i) Mysore
(ii) Renukoot
(iii) Vishakhapatnam
(iv) Khetri
Code:
| A | B | C | D | |
| (A) | 1 | 2 | 3 | 4 |
| (B) | 4 | 3 | 2 | 1 |
| (C) | 2 | 1 | 4 | 3 |
| (D) | 3 | 2 | 1 | 4 |
Answer: A