DECEMBER 2023 GEOGRAPHY PAPER 2 SOLVED PAPER NTA UGC NET BY NETSET CORNER
This is the official Questions Paper and Answer Key for the Paper 2 geography conducted on DEC 2023, taken from NTA UGC NET Site.
Note: This paper contains 100 multiple choice questions, each questions carrying two (2) marks. Attempt all of them.
(PDF) For download PDF file of question paper go to the bottom of this post.
Q.1. Arrange the following industrial location theories in chronological order.
(A) Alfred Weber’s theory
(B) Allen Pred’s theory
(C) Edgar Hoover’s theory
(D) Walter Isard’s theory
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(A) A, D, B, C
(B) A, C, D, B
(C) A, B, D, C
(D) A, C, B, D
Answer: B
Q.2. Match List I and List II
List-I
(Regional Block)
(A) NAFTA
(B) NATO
(C) ASEAN
(D) OECD
List II
(Headquarter)
(I) Brussels, Belgium
(II) Jakarta, Indonesia
(III) Ottawa, Canada
(IV) Paris France
Choose the correct answer from the options given below –
(A) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
(B) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV
(C) A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV
(D) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
Answer: B
Q.3. Arrange the following objects in ascending order of reflectance in optical thermal infrared region (8.00-9.20 μm).
(A) Grass
(B) Concrete
(C) Sandy loam soil
(D) Clear water
Choose the correct answer from the options given below –
(A) A, B, C, D
(B) B, A, D, C
(C) C, A, B, D
(D) D, C, B, A
Answer: D
Q.4. Identify the correct statements.
(A) Mobility Transition Model of Lee established relationship between migration and demographic transition.
(B) Ravenstein recognized distance-decay as one of the laws of migration.
(C) Intervening opportunity model was propounded by Stouffer.
(D) ‘White Australia’ policy aimed for peaceful settlement of migrants from all over the world without any restrictions.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(A) A, B and C only
(B) B, C and D only
(C) A and D only
(D) B and C only
Answer: D
Q.5. The study of ecocline representing the changing conditions across an ecosystem boundary is known as-
(A) Black Box Model
(B) Climax vegetation
(C) Gradient analysis
(D) Natural analysis
Answer: C
Q.6. The international boundary of USA- Canada does NOT pass though __________ lake.
(A) Huron
(B) Michigan
(C) Erie
(D) Ontario
Answer: B
Q.7. Consider the following statements related to insolation:
(A) Electromagnetic waves striking an object may be assimilated by that object-this process is called absorption.
(B) Radiation is the ability of an object to repel electromagnetic waves without altering either the object or the wave.
(C) Gas molecules and particulate matter in the air can deflect light waves and redirect them, which in known as transmission.
(D) The movement of heat energy from one molecule to another without changes in their relative positions is called conduction.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below –
(A) A and B only
(B) B and C only
(C) C and D only
(D) A and D only
Answer: C
Q.8. Stoddart suggested four main themes from Darwin’s work which played significant contribution to the contemporary geographical thought. Which of these main themes leads towards both ‘scientific determinism’ and ‘possibilism’ in the contemporary geographical concepts?
(A) The idea of change through time.
(B) The idea of organisation and ecology.
(C) The ideas of selection and struggle.
(D) The randomness character of variations in nature.
Answer: C
Q.9. Identify the statement which is NOT correct with reference to diseases.
(A) Lathyrism is result of excessive consumption of tobacco.
(B) Pellagra is the result of niacin deficiency.
(C) Acute encephalitis syndrome is also Known as chamki fever.
(D) Beri-beri is caused by severe deficiency of Vitamin B1.
Answer: A
Q.10. Identify the correct statements about Myrdal’s cumulative causation theory.
(A) Myrdal argued that regional differences are the natural outcome of economic development and the inevitable result of market forces.
(B) Myrdal recognizes four stages in the growth of the space economy.
(C) Myrdal’s pre-conditions for take-off are both descriptive and prescriptive.
(D) There will be industrially expanding region on the one end, and stagnating, or declining region on the other
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(A) A and B only
(B) B and C only
(C) A and D only
(D) B and D only
Answer: C
Q.11. Match List I and List II
List I
(Approach)
(A) Behaviouralism
(B) Humanism
(C) Structuralism
(D) Postmodernism
List II
(Focus)
(I) Accepts the basic notion of ‘determination’.
(II) Congnitive environment determinies the decision making process of man.
(III) People and their condition
(IV) Openness in social and geographical enquiry
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(A) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
(B) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
(C) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
(D) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
Answer: C
Q.12. Which of the following set of cyclones rotate/spin in counter- clock wise direction?
(A) Hurricanes and Willy-Willies
(B) Typhoon and Baguios
(C) Cyclones and Willy-Willies
(D) Willy-Willies and Baguios
Answer: B
Q.13. Arrange the following islands of Indian ocean in north to south direction.
(A) Diego Garcia
(B) Cocos
(C) Socotra
(D) Réunion
Choose the correct answer from the options given below –
(A) B, C, A, D
(B) C, A, B, D
(C) A, C, B, D
(D) B, C, D, A
Answer: B
Q.14. _________ was the first formal book on geography.
(A) Geographica
(B) Guide to Geography
(C) Periods Ges
(D) Kosmos
Answer: D
Q.15. Q Identify the correct statements.
(A) Large-sized trees with dense population does not necessarily mean that the forests would be more efficient in terms of primary production.
(B) The size of the producer is directly related with the efficiency of primary production.
(C) The rate of fixation of radiant energy in an ecosystem determines the efficiency of production.
(D) Net primary productivity of temperate forests is more than tropical forests.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(A) A and B only
(B) B and C only
(C) C and D only
(D) A and C only
Answer: D
Q.16. Identify the correct statements about Edge cities.
(A) The concept of Edge city was coined by ‘Garreau’.
(B) There are less jobs than number of homes in Edge Cities.
(C) The edge cities are basically multifunctional employment centers.
(D) Edge cities are developed as planned cities by the government without involving private builders and developers.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(A) A and B only
(B) B and D only
(C) C and D only
(D) A and C only
Answer: D
Q.17. In 2011, among Scheduled Indian languages was _________ at rank 4 in terms of total number speakers.
(A) Marathi
(B) Tamil
(C) Gujarati
(D) Telugu
Answer: D
Q.18. Identify the correct statements about the State of Food Security and Nutrition in the World, 2019 (FAO).
(A) About 820 million people in world are hungary, and Bangladesh and Pakistan being home to around 195 million and 122 million, respectively, of them.
(B) Incidence of hunger decreased in all parts of Africa except sub-Saharan Africa.
(C) Gender gap in food security prevails in all continents.
(D) In the world, incidence of obesity has increased faster than that of overweight between 2000 and 2016.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below –
(A) A, B and C only
(B) B, C and D onl
(C) A and B only
(D) C and D only
Answer: D
Q.19. Which of the following statements are correct about the impact of Darwin on Geographical Thought.
(A) Davision Concept of cycle of erosion was inspired by the central idea in the Origin of Species regarding change in-species through time.
(B) Siddal stressed the need for physiological study to assess environmental effects on man.
(C) The Davision geomorphology adopted the biological analogy of ageing to the development of landforms.
(D) Fleure had focussed on the theme of natural selection and environmental influences.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below –
(A) C and D only
(B) A and B only
(C) A and C only
(D) D and B only
Answer: C
Q.20. Consider the following statements with regards to soil profile.
(A) O-Horizon: It consists mostly of surface litter and partially decaying organic matter.
(B) A-Horizon: It is commonly called as top soil.
(C) E-Horizon: It is the lowest soil layer consisting mostly of parent material.
(D) B-Horizon. It is the zone of leaching, lying between the top-soil and the less fertile layers below.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(A) B and C only
(B) A and D only
(C) A and C only
(D) A and B only
Answer: D
Q.21. Arrange the following adopters of innovations in descending order on the basis of their percentage shere of all adopters.
(A) innovators
(B) Late majority
(C) Laggards
(D) Early adopters
Choose the correct answer from the options given below –
(A) A, B, C, D
(B) B, A, D, C
(C) C, A, B, D
(D) B, C, D, A
Answer: D
Q.22. Identify the correct statements about UN-REDD+
(A) It is part of SDG-6.
(B) REDD+ was first introduced in COP Agenda in 2001
(C) The ‘+’ stands for additional forest related activities that protect the climate.
(D) REDD stands for reducing emissions from deforestation and forest degradation in developing countries.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below –
(A) A and D only
(B) C and D only
(C) B and C only
(D) A and B only
Answer: B
Q.23. Match List I and List II
List I
(Copper Mines)
(A) Singhana
(B) Mosabani
(C) Taregaon
(D) Agnigundala
List-II
(State)
(I) Madhya Pradesh
(II) Rajasthan
(III) Andhra Pradesh
(IV) Jharkhand
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(A) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
(B) A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I
(C) A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III
(D) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
Answer: A
Q.24. ___________ pointed out that a major underlying weakness of voting geography has been the failure to relate it to studies in political geography as a whole.
(A) Taylor and Johnston
(B) Siegfried
(C) Cox
(D) Weaver
Answer: C
Q.25. Match List I and List II
List I
(Scale)
(A) Wentworth
(B) Saffir-Simpson
(C) Fujita
(D) Richter
List II
(Application)
(I) Earthquake
(II) Sediment size
(III) Tornado
(IV) Hurricane
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(A) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
(B) A-I, B-IV, C-II, D-III
(C) A-I, B-III, C-IV, D-II
(D) A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I
Answer: D
Q.26. Which one of the following is NOT among the five criteria adopted by Whittelesey in classification of world agriculture types?
(A) Crop and livestock Combination
(B) Methods and techniques used to grow crops and raise livestock
(C) Disposal of agriculture products or livestock
(D) Level of agriculture productivity
Answer: D
Q.27. Identify the correct statements about world population (2022).
(A) More Developed Countries (MDCs) constitute one-third of the world population.
(B) Crude Death Rate (CDR) is higher in more developed countries as compared to less developed countries.
(C) One-fourth of the world population is in the age group of less than 15 years.
(D) The share of rural population is higher than urban population in world population.
(A) A, B and C only
(B) B and C only
(C) C and D only
(D) A, C and D only
Answer: B
Q.28. Identify the correct sequence of organisms in food chain.
(A) Barnacle Larva
(B) Diatoms
(C) Herring
(D) Arrow Worm
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(A) A, B, C, D
(B) B, A, D, C
(C) D, C, A, B
(D) C, A, D, B
Answer: B
Q.29. The headquarter of UNFCCC is located at __________.
(A) Bonn, Germany
(B) New York, USA
(C) Geneva, Switzerland
(D) Quebec, Canada
Answer: A
Q.30. Identify the correct statements about Iron and steel plants of India.
(A) Most of the Indian steel plants are located close to areas from where raw materials are sourced.
(B) Visakhapatnam steel plant is a shore based plant using imported coking coal.
(C) Sponge iron manufacturing has also grown sizeably.
(D) Indian Steel plants are the largest producer of steel in the world.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below –
(A) A, B and D only
(B) A, B and C only
(C) B, C and D only
(D) A, C and D only
Answer: B
Q.31. The zone and strata theory of racial classification was propounded by __________ .
(A) Hadden
(B) Kroeber
(C) Taylor
(D) Spencer and Thomas
Answer: C
Q.32. _________ modified Von Thunen’s model of Landuse in 1925.
(A) Jonasson
(B) Valkenburg
(C) Horvath
(D) Blaikie
Answer: A
Q.33. Match List I and List II
List I
(Classified codes of Air masses)
(A) cP
(B) mP
(C) cT
(D) mT
List II
(Source Region Properties)
(I) Cold, moist, relatively unstable
(II) Warm, moist, variable stablility
(III) Cold, dry and very stabe
(IV) Hot, very dry, unstable
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(A) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
(B) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
(C) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
(D) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
Answer: C
Q.34. Which of the following statements are NOT true about Chi Square Test?
(A) It is a parametric test.
(B) It is restricted to nominal (frequency) data.
(C) In one sample situation, it is the most commonly recommended test for uniformity model.
(D) In one sample situation, the null hypothesis is that the difference between the observed and the expected frequencies is highly significant.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below –
(A) B and C only
(B) A and B only
(C) C and D only
(D) A and D only
Answer: D
Q.35. Consider the following statements related to the Feminism and identify the correct statements.
(A) Feminist geographers trace the interconnections between all aspects of daily life.
(B) Feminist geographers emphasize the use of the quantitative modes of analysis.
(C) Feminist geographers emphasize the use of the qualitative modes of analysis.
(D) Pred identified three phases in the development of focus in feminist geographies.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below –
(A) A and B only
(B) B and C only
(C) C and D only
(D) A and C only
Answer: D
Q.36. Identify the correct statements about forest resources of India.
(A) Deodar trees grow in NW Himalayas between the altitude of 1500m to 2500m above MSL.
(B) Chir (Pine) trees grow on Himalayan slopes between the height of 900m to 1800m above MSL.
(C) Pine forests of Himalayan region is the source of resins on commercial scale.
(D) An open and almost xerophytic forest of juniper, pines with scattered Oak and ash is found on Aravali Ranges in Eastern Rajasthan.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(A) A, B and C only
(B) B, C and D only
(C) A and D only
(D) C and D only
Answer: A
Q.37. __________ is the weight of water vapour per unit of weight of air.
(A) Absolute Humidity
(B) Specific Humidity
(C) Relative Humidity
(D) Vapour pressure
Answer: B
Q.38. ________ is NOT the tributary of river Krishna
(A) Manjra
(B) Musi
(C) Koyna
(D) Bhima
Answer: A
Q.39. Identify the correct statements about the climatic conditions of India.
(A) In the month of July 30°C isotherm covers large parts of north-west India.
(B) In the month of January 30°C isothrm covers the large part of peninsular India.
(C) Mahanadi basin region receives rainfall from 100cm to 200cm per annum.
(D) By 10th October S.W. Monsoon completes its withdrawal from Indian peninsular region.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below –
(A) A and B only
(B) B and C only
(C) C and D only
(D) A and C only
Answer: D
Q.40. _________ shows an inverted pyramid of biomass.
A Ecosystem of a big tree
- B) Grassland ecosystem
C Forest ecosystem
- D) Aquatic ecosystem
Answer: D
Q.41. Calculate bifurcation ratio of a river basin when 2nd order number of segments are 38 and 3rd order segments, are 9.
(A) 19
(B) 3
(C) 4.22
(D) 12.66
Answer: C
Q.42. Identify the correct statements.
(A) The Sun’s influence on tides is only 46 percent that of the moon’s.
(B) Sun is about 17 million times as massive as the moon but about 287 times as far as from earth as the moon
(C) As salinity in oceans is primarily controlled by latitude, it is highest at equator.
(D) Diatom and Radiolarian are siliceous Oozes.
(A) A, B and D only
(B) B and D only
(C) A and D only
(D) B, C and D only
Answer: C
Q.43. Which of the following is practiced in North American Plains?
(A) Commercial dairy farming
(B) Commercial Grain Farming
(C) Specialised Horticulture
(D) Intensive subsistence tillage with rice dominant
Answer: B
Q.44. ________ suggested that since man could not be put to scientific analysis, the study of man should be taken outside the purview of geography.
(A) Richthofen
(B) Dickinson
(C) Ritter
(D) Gerland
Answer: D
Q.45. Arrange the following geographical publications in chronological order.
(A) Alternative Geographies
(B) Mapping Desires
(C) General History of Nature of the Heavens
(D) Kosmos
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(A) C, D, B, A
(B) A, B, C, D
(C) A, C, B, D
(D) D, A, B, C
Answer: A
Q.46. Match List I and List II
List I
(Population pyramid)
(A) Expansive
(B) Bell Shaped
(C) Stationary
(D) Constrictive
List II
(Country)
(I) Italy
(II) Ghana
(III) India
(IV) USA
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :-
(A) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
(B) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
(C) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
(D) A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I
Answer: C
Q.47. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as reason R.
Assertion A: The production of nuclear energy is increasing world over.
Reason R: Heavy costs are involved in the generation of nuclear energy.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the option given below:
(A) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.
(B) Both A and R are correct but R is Not the correct explanation of A.
(C) A is correct but R is not correct.
(D) A is not correct but R is correct.
Answer: B
Q.48. In which of the following types of map, growth of a city as its population and area increases through time is displayed?
(A) Animated maps
(B) Cartogram maps
(C) Choropleth maps
(D) Isopleth maps
Answer: A
Q.49. Identify the correct statements about process of urbanization
(A) Urbanization is the process where land and inhabitants become urban ‘Smailes’.
(B) Urbanism is a way of life’- Wirth.
(C) Davis highlighted the relationship between specialism and rise in urban population.
(D) Carter argued that urbanization takes place only if the growth rate of urban population exceeds the average population growth rate of a nation.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below
(A) A and C only
(B) B and D only
(C) A and B only
(D) C and D only
Answer: C
Q.50. Air transport plays an important role in most parts of Canada, Alaska, large parts of Russia and most part of Australia because __________.
(A) very large population is concentrated in these parts.
(B) great expanse of forest and ice caps.
(C) it provides door to door connectivity.
(D) population is scattered and its difficult to develop other means of transport.
Answer: D
Q.51. Arrange the following religions in descending order on the basis of number of adherents in the world.
(A) Hindus
(B) Muslims
(C) Christians
(D) Buddhists
Choose the correct answer from the options given below
(A) B, C, A, D
(B) D, C, A, B
(C) C, A, B, D
(D) C, B, A, D
Answer: D
Q.52. Arrange the following census years in descending order (Maximum to minimum) related to population growth rate (%) in India.
(A) 1961 Census
(B) 1971 Census
(C) 1991 Census
(D) 2011 Census
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(A) B, C, A, D
(B) C, B, D, A
(C) B, C, D, A
(D) C, B, A, D
Answer: A
Q.53. Given below are two statements:
Statement I: Katabatic winds originate in cold upland areas and cascade toward low elevations under the influence of gravity and are also referred as gravity flow winds.
Statement II: Pampero and Haboob are the local Katabatic winds.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below
(A) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
(B) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
(C) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
(D) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
Answer: C
Q.54. Given below are two statement: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.
Assertion A: An urban heat Island is a metropolitan area which is warmer than the surrounding rural areas.
Reason R: In metropolitan areas, heat is created by energy from all the people, buildings, cars, buses and trains.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the option given below
(A) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.
(B) Both A and R are correct but R is Not the correct explanation of A.
(C) A is correct but R is not correct.
(D) A is not correct but R is correct.
Answer: A
Q.55. Identify the correct statements about Idiographic vs. Nomothetic dualism in Geography
(A) Humboldt and Sauer laid stress on formulation of general laws.
(B) James declared that there is no such thing as a ‘real region’.
(C) Kant, Hettner and Hartshorne considered geography as a Nomothetic science.
(D) For kant, geography is descriptive.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below
(A) A and C only
(B) C and D only
(C) B and C Only
(D) A, B and D only
Answer: D
Q.56. Which of the following statement is NOT correct about Glacial Lake Outburst floods (GLOF)
(A) Overdeeping of former glacial beds are uncovered during the course of glacial retreat which allows melt water to collect as glacial lakes.
(B) About 150 million people globally are exposed to impact for potential GLOF.
(C) Population of High Mountains of Asia (HMA) are the most exposed to GLOF in the world.
(D) GLOF mitigation is covered under UN: SDG-10
Answer: B
Q.57. _______ divided the world ecosystems on the basis of use of harvest method and net primary production.
(A) Hackel
(B) Odum
(C) Whittaker
(D) Furley
Answer: B
Q.58. Given below are two statements regarding constitutional provisions for the protection of environment in India.
Statement I: The state shall endeavor to protect and improve the environment and to safeguard the forests and wildlife of the country.
Statement II: It shall be the duty of every citizen of India to protect and improve the natural environment.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below
(A) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
(B) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
(C) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
(D) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
Answer: A
Q.59. __________ was the first to point out the difference in the amount of heat received from the sun in the equatorial regions as compared with that in the higher latitudes?
(A) Thales
(B) Varenius
(C) Anaximander
(D) Hecataeus
Answer: B
Q.60. Identify the WRONG statements with reference to natural disasters in India
(A) National Flood Commission has identified 40 million hectares area of India as flood prone.
(B) About one-third land area of India is vulnerable to landslide hazard.
(C) Tuticorin lies in greater seismic sensitivity zone as compared to Mumbai and Kolkata.
(D) Super cyclone of 26th December 2004 resulted into great loss of life and property in Odisha.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :-
(A) A, B and D Only
(B) B, C and D Only
(C) A, C and D Only
(D) A and D Only
Answer: B
Q.61. In ________ 36.1 percent females in age group of 15-49 were having HIV/AIDS, as per 2022 world population Data, UN.
(A) Lesotho
(B) Namibia
(C) Eswatini
(D) Botswana
Answer: C
Q.62. Kelp forests are ecosystems.
of
(A) Semi-arid
(B) Boreal
(C) Marine
(D) Savanna
Answer: C
Q.63. ________ is NOT a glacio-fluvial landform.
(A) Drumlin
(B) Esker
(C) Kame
(D) Kettle hole
Answer: A
Q.64. In multiple nuclei model which of the following zone is not continuous to the city and develops at outer margin in isolation.
(A) Wholesale manufacturing trade and light
(B) Outlying business district
(C) Low class residential zone
(D) Residential suburbs.
Answer: D
Q.65. Which of the following photograph is used in the analysis of plant and crop diseases, soil and water pollution?
(A) Panchromatic photograph
(B) Colour photograph
(C) Infrared black and white photograph
(D) Infrared colour photograph
Answer: D
Q.66. Match List I and List II
List I
(Ethnic Group)
(A) Veddas
(B) Ainu
(C) Ashanti
(D) Berbers
List II
(Country)
(I) Algeria
(II) Ghana
(III) Japan
(IV) Sri Lanka
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :-
(A) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
(B) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
(C) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
(D) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
Answer: C
Q.67. Consider the following statements about landuse changes in India and identify the correct statements.
(A) The total cropped area in India has increased from about 118 million hectare in 1951 to about 139 million, hectare in 2019,
(B) The net sown area in India has increased from about 131 million hectare in 1951 to about 197 million hectare in 2019.
(C) The forested area in India increased from about 40 million hectare in 1951 to about 72 million hectare in 2019.
(D) The culturable waste land in India has been decreased from about 22 million hectare in 1951 to about 12.2 million hectare in 2019.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(A) A and B only
(B) B and C only
(C) C and D only
(D) B and D only
Answer: C
Q.68. Match List I and List II
List I
(Pedogenic Regimes)
(A) Laterization
(B) Podsolization
(C) Gleization
(D) Calcification
List II
(Climate)
(I) Humid Temperate
(II) Hot and Wet
(III) Semi-Arid
(IV) Extremely cold and humid
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(A) A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I
(B) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
(C) A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III
(D) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
Answer: D
Q.69. Which of the following chemical zones of atmosphere is located in outer most sphere from earth surface?
(A) Nitrogen layer
(B) Oxygen layer
(C) Helium layer
(D) Hydrogen layer
Answer: D
Q.70. If the line of regression is a good estimator of the data, the R² will be near__________
(A) Zero
(B) -1
(C) Less than zero
(D) Unity
Answer: D
Q.71. ________ is located in Indian Ocean.
(A) Carlsberg ridge
(B) Walvis ridge
(C) Wyville Thomson ridge
(D) Albatross plateau
Answer: A
Q.72. Which one of the following set of two passes are located in Sikkim
(A) Nathu La and Niti La.
(B) Jelep La and Nathu La.
(C) Lipu-Lekh La and Thaga La.
(D) Nathu La and Bara Lacha La.
Answer: B
Q.73. Identify the WRONG statements.
(A) India lies in the marginal crescent of Mackinder’s Heartland model.
(B) Israel, Brazil and Pakistan are located in the Rimland part of Spykman.
(C) China is investing in the development of Gwadar port in Pakistan and Chabhar port in Iran.
(D) Diego Garcia is used as a naval base by Russia.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below –
(A) A, B and C only
(B) A and C only
(C) B, C and D only
(D) A, B and D only
Answer: C
Q.74. _________ is based on the role of a city as a centre of financial power and high technology infrastructure.
(A) Conurbation
(B) Global city
(C) University City
(D) Recreational city
Answer: B
Q.75. Maski Band of Dharwar and Champion reefs are bearing significant reserves of which one of the mineral resource?
(A) Diamond
(B) Uranium
(C) Platinum
(D) Gold
Answer: D
Q.76. Which of the following set of statements is correct about droughts in India.
(A) Ecological drought takes place when the productivity of natural ecosystem falls significantly as a consequence of distress induced environmental damage.
(B) Hydrological drought persists after at least three successive meteorological droughts.
(C) Meteorological drought is a situation where there is a reduction in rainfall for a specific period below a specific amount.
(D) Agricultural drought occurs when large scale collapse of access to food occurs which, without intervention can lead to mass starvation and even deaths.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below –
(A) A and B only
(B) B and C only
(C) A and C only
(D) C and D only
Answer: C
Q.77. Which of the following is NOT the correct evidence for global warming?
(A) Rising sea level.
(B) Grass has disappeared on some slopes of Antarctica.
(C) Upward moving tree line in mountains.
(D) Shifting of few tropical diseases towards poles.
Answer: B
Q.78. _________ refers to a collaboration between a government, private firms, and universities, which may form the basis of the Science and Technology Park structure.
(A) Cluster Theory
(B) The triple helix model
(C) Growth pole theory
(D) Isard’s model
Q.79. Identify the correct statements about Freidmann’s core-periphery model.
(A) The core region is the focus of economic growth with an urban nucleaus.
(B) Around the core downward transitional areas are in the process of development.
(C) Resource frontier areas are found around the core region.
(D) Downward-transitional areas represent areas of settlement that are stagnant or declining because of decline in the resource base or industrial structure.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below –
(A) A and C Only
(B) A and B only
(C) A and D only
(D) B and C only
Answer: C
Q.80. Match List I and List II
List I
(Longitude)
(A) International Date line
(B) 140°E
(C) Prime Meridian
(D) 50°E
List II (Sea/Gulf))
(I) Gulf of Carpentaria
(II) Gulf of Guinea
(III) Caspian Sea
(IV) Bering Sea
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(A) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
(B) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
(C) A-I, B-IV, C-III, D-II
(D) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
Answer: D
Q.81. ____________ represents a degree of metamorphism between slate and schist.
(A) Phyllite
(B) Gneiss
(C) Marble
(D) Quartzite
Answer: A
Q.82. Identify the correct statements.
(A) The fastest and deepest geostrophic currents are found at the western boundaries of ocean basins.
(B) Western boundary currents are more concentrated and eastern boundary currents are more diffusive.
(C) Brazil current is the largest of the western boundary currents.
(D) Canary, Benguela and Humboldt currents are eastern boundary currents.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below –
(A) A, B and D only
(B) A, B and C only
(C) A, C and D only
(D) C and D only
Answer: A
Q.83. Outer core is differentiated from Inner core on the basis of variations in the velocity of ___________ waves.
(A) P, S and L
(B) P and S
(C) S
(D) P
Answer: D
Q.84. Given below are two statements regarding trade:
Statement I: According to Ricardian model, the need for trade arises due to differences in technology or natural resources:
Statement II: Japan has no oil reserves of its own, yet it is among the world’s largest consumer of oil.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below
(A) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
(B) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
(C) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
(D) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
Answer: A
Q.85. Arrange the following states of India in descending order of male-female gap in literacy (2011).
(A) Jharkhand
(B) Rajasthan
(C) Sikkim
(D) Gujarat
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(A) B, A, D, C
(B) A, B, D, C
(C) B, A, C, D
(D) A, B, C, D
Answer: A
Q.86. Identify the correct statements about knowledge based industries.
(A) Pharmaceuticals, health, telecommunications are some biotech, of the examples of knowledge based industries.
(B) Tier-I Industries are the knowledge producers.
(C) Tier-Il industries are comprised by business innovators.
(D) These industries do not face financial challenges due to huge amounts of fixed assets.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(A) A, B and C only
(B) B, C and D only
(C) A and D only
(D) B and D only
Answer: A
Q.87. Black forest mountain belongs to __________ orogeny.
(A) Alpine
(B) Hercynian
(C) Caledonian
(D) Pre-Cambrian
Answer: B
Q.88. Match List I and List II
List I
(Scholar)
(A) Ibn-Khaldun
(B) Pierre d’ Ally
(C) Elisee reclus
(D) Al-Biruni
List II
(Book)
(I) Imagine Mundi
(II) Kitab-al-Hind
(III) Muqaddimah
(IV) La Terre
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(A) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
(B) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
(C) A-IV, B-I, C-III, D-II
(D) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
Answer: D
Q.89. In Late Expanding Stage of Demographic Transition
(A) total population increases with increasing growth rates
(B) total population decreases due to declining growth rates
(C) total population increases with growth rates
(D) total population decreases and growth rates become negative
Answer: C
Q.90. Arrange the following ICT companies is descending order of their market valuation in 2023.
(A) Tata Consultancy Services
(B) HCL Technologies
(C) Wipro Limited
(D) Infosys
Choose the correct answer from the options given below –
(A) A, B, C, D
(B) D, A, B, C
(C) A, D, B, C
(D) D, B, A, C
Answer: C
Q.91. Comprehension:
Read the following Passage and answer the following questions: (91 – 95)
One of the main tenets of the plate tectonics theory is that plates move as somewhat rigid units relative to all other plates. As plates move, the distance between two locations on different plates gradually changes. Major interactions of plates occur along their boundaries. They make three types of boundaries- convergent plate boundaries; divergent plate boundaries and transform plate boundaries. The continental drift theory, conventional currents concept and sea floor spreading concept provided the base for the theory of plate tectonics. It explains formation of first and second order landforms. It explains several other phenomena such as mountain building, sea floor, trench formation, volcanism, and seismicity
Q.91. Movement of plates is gradually increasing distance between
(A) New York and London
(B) Delhi and Sydney
(C) Paris and Moscow
(D) Lagos and Cape Town
Answer: A
Q.92. ________ is located on divergent plate boundary
(A) Mariana Trench
(B) Ural Mountain
(C) Andes Mountain
(D) Iceland
Answer: D
Q.93. San Andreas fault is an example of ___________
(A) Convergent plate boundary
(B) Transform boundary
(C) Divergent boundary
(D) Constructive plate boundary
Answer: B
Q.94. Andes mountains are located at the convergent zone of _______
(A) Eurasian and Philippine plates
(B) American and Scotia plates
(C) Pacific and Cocos plates
(D) Nazca plate and South American plate
Answer: D
Q.95. ________ is NOT an evidence in support of sea floor spreading.
(A) Age of sediments
(B) Paleomagnetism
(C) Tidal force
(D) Mapping of volcanic islands and seamounts
Answer: C
Q.96. Read the following Passage and answer the following questions: (96-100)
Electromagnetic energy sensors are operated from airborne and spaceborne platforms to assist in inventorying, mapping and monitoring earth resources. The two basic processes involved are data acquisition and data analysis. The wavelength ranges in which the atmosphere is particularly transmissive of energy are referred to as atmospheric windows. Irrespective of its source, all radiation detected by remote sensors passes through some distance or path length, of the atmosphere. The path length involved can vary widely. The variations in spectral reflectance curves help in identification of different earth surface features and their characteristics. Satellites generally operate in two orbits- the sun- synchronous and geostationary. Remote sensors are characterized by spatial, spectral, temporal and radiometric resolutions that enable the extraction of useful information pertaining to different terrain conditions. Indian Space Research Organization (ISRO) has made remarkable progress towards building the space infrastructure- as the community resource to leapfrog the developmental processes. The Indian National Satellite System, the Earth Observation System and Satellite Navigation system are the main components of the Indian satellites.
Q.96. _________ belongs to the Earth Observation System component of the Indian satellites.
(A) KALPANA-1
(B) GSAT-29
(C) IRNSS-1A
(D) Oceansat-2
Answer: D
Q.97. Red band is an example of
(A) Spectral resolution
(B) Radiometric resolution
(C) Temporal resolution
(D) Spatial resolution
Answer: A
Q.98. _________is NOT part of data acquisition process.
(A) Platform
(B) GIS
(C) Sensors
(D) Atmospheric window
Answer: B
Q.99. The atmospheric path length is shortest in case of _______
(A) Airborne photography
(B) INSAT Satellite
(C) Airborne Thermal sensing
(D) Space borne photography
Answer: C
Q.100. ________is Not an airborne platform
(A) Kite
(B) Pigeon
(C) Drone
(D) Camera
Answer: D
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