DEC 2022 GEOGRAPHY QUESTIONS PAPER SHIFT II NTA UGC NET
This is the official Questions Paper and Answer Key for the Paper 2 geography conducted on March 2023, taken from nta ugcnet site
Note: This paper contains 100 multiple choice questions, each questions carrying two (2) marks. Attempt all of them.
(PDF) For download PDF file of question paper go to the bottom of this post.
Q.1. Which of the following geomorphic phenomena moves fastest?
(1) Mud flow
(2) Earth flow
(3) Debris Avalanche
(4) Solifluction
Answer: 3
Q.2. How many minimum seismic stations data is required to map the epicentre of earthquake?
(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Three
(4) Four
Answer: 3
Q.3. Who stated that valley side dope gives a clue to the relative importance of exogenic and endogenic processes?
(1) Davis
(2) Penck
(3) King
(4) Gilbert
Answer: 2
Q.4. Which of the following is not directly related to magnitude of earthquake?
(1) Length of fault section that broker
(2) Damage severity
(3) Depth of focus
(4) Amount of energy released by earthquake
Answer: 2
Q.5. Which atmospheric gas is primary ingredient of photochemical smog?
(1) Carbon dioxide
(2) Ozone
(3) Argon
(4) Methane
Answer: 2
Q.6. Which is the correct sequence of height of tropopause (in km) over polar areas, over middle latitudes, and over equator?
(1) 9, 11, 16
(2) 19, 21, 26
(3) 5, 8, 20
(4) 10, 20, 30
Answer: 1
Q.7. From the Earth’s heat budget, out of total incoming radiation, what percent is reflected back to space?
(1) about 10 percent
(2) about 20 percent
(3) about 30 percent
(4) about 50 percent
Answer: 3
Q.8. Which type of lightening has potential to cause more damage to life and property?
(1) Inter-cloud lightning
(2) Positive cloud-to-ground lightning
(3) Negative cloud-to-ground lightning
(4) Intra-cloud lightning
Answer: 2
Q.9. Which one of the following approaches advocates to think that the most affective philosophical ground for protecting the natural environment to think in terms of protecting natural beauty?
(1) Deep ecology
(2) Environmental pragmatism
(3) Social ecology
(4) Environmental aesthetics
Answer: 4
Q.10. Which one of the following has maximum biomass in terrestrial ecosystem?
(1) Tertiary consumers
(2) Secondary consumers
(3) Primary consumers
(4) Producers
Answer: 4
Q.11. Manufacture of biomass by organisms that eat plants is termed as:
(1) Primary productivity
(2) Net primary productivity
(3) Secondary productivity
(4) Tertiary productivity
Answer: 3
Q.12. In disaster reduction and management which one of the following is part of post-disaster stage?
(1) Vulnerability analysis
(2) Disaster prediction
(3) Disaster warning
(4) Rehabilitation
Answer: 4
Q.13. Which one of the following measure represents perhaps the most sensitive barometer of the fitness of the social environment for human life?
(1) Maternal Mortality Ratio
(2) Crude death rate
(3) Child mortality rate
(4) infant mortality rate
Answer: 4
Q.14. Who among the following first used the term Ecumene and Non-ecumene to distinguish between inhabited and unhabited portion of earth’s surface?
(1) Romans
(2) Greeks
(3) German
(4) French
Answer: 2
Q.15. Which one of the following geographer famously stated that population is the point of reference from which all the other elements are observed and derive significance and meaning?
(1) J. I. Clarke
(2) G.T Trewartha
(3) E.A. Jones
(4) W. Zelinsky
Answer: 2
Q.16. Which of the following does not represent functions of the town?
(1) Culture and recreation
(2) Transportation
(3) Fishing and farming
(4) Resource Extraction
Answer: 3
Q.17. Identify the world’s leading country in the exports and imports of commercial services in 2021 as per World Trade Organization (WTO) report.
(1) USA
(2) India
(3) China
(4) Japan
Answer: 1
Q.18. Which of the following is not one of the broad five socio-economic themes in Aspirational Districts Programme?
(1) Health and Nutrition
(2) Financial season and Development
(3) Basic infrastructure
(4) Import Substitution and Export Promotion
Answer: 4
Q.19. Which one of the following highlighted that “An area is poor because it is poor”?
(1) Gunnar Myrdal’s cumulative causation
(2) Perroux’s growth pole
(3) Meadow’s limits to growth
(4) Rostow’s stages of Economic Growth
Answer: 1
Q.20. In which country magnetite ores are mined at Kiruna and Gallivare?
(1) Sweden
(2) Australia
(3) Brazil
(4) Canada
Answer: 1
Q.21. In 2021, which country was the leading steel producer and exporter of the world?
(1) Japan
(2) China
(3) USA
(4) Australia
Answer: 2
Q.22. Technopolies Silicon Forest and Silicon Valley are located near which cities, respectively?
(1) Boston and San Francisco
(2) Sao Paulo and Seattle
(3) Seattle and San Francisco
(4) Seattle and Osaka
Answer: 3
Q.23. Identify the city from the following where 27th meeting of the Conference of Parties (CoP-27) took place?
(1) Glasgow
(2) Sharm El-Sheikh
(3) Madrid
(4) Bonn
Answer: 2
Q.24. Considering the food security, arrange the following sub-regions of Africa in descending order according to the percentage of Prevalence of undernourishment (PoU) (2018).
(A) North Africa
(B) Eastern Africa
(C) Western Africa
(D) Sub-Saharan Africa
Code:
(1) D-B-A-C
(2) B-D-C-A
(3) C-D-B-A
(4) B-D-A-C
Answer: 2
Q.25. Which of the following books are written by Alfred Thayer Mahan?
(A) The Influence of Sea Power and History
(B) The Life of Nelson
(C) The Influence of Sea Power upon French Revolution and Empire
(D) The Geographical Pivot of History
Code:
(1) A and D only
(2) C and D only
(3) B, C and D only
(4) A, B and C only
Answer: 4
Q.26. Which of the following country is not considered as a Nation State?
(1) Belgium
(2) Japan
(3) Egypt
(4) Sweden
Answer: 1
Q.27. Identify the scholar who laid the foundation of the dichotomy of Systematic vs. Regional Geography.
(1) Cook
(2) Varenius
(3) Kant
(4) Darwin
Answer: 2
Q.28. Who was the author of 17 Volumes of ‘Geographical Treaties’?
(1) Ptolemy
(2) Beatus
(3) Strabo
(4) Jerome
Answer: 3
Q.29. The scientific observations about the size, shape and circumference of the earth were made by Eratosthenes and Hipparchus at which of the following place?
(1) Tanais
(2) Tyras
(3) Abydos
(4) Alexandria.
Answer: 4
Q.30. Which of the following is not a humanistic geographer?
(1) Tuan
(2) Kirk
(3) Kropotkin
(4) Strabo
Answer: 4
Q.31. The actual labour productivity of farms was compared with what could have been achieved under optimizing decision-making by the farmers acting as rational economic persons. Which of the following geographer conducted this study?
(1) Wright
(2) White
(3) Kirk
(4) Wolpert
Answer: 4
Q.32. The productivity of rice in Punjab depends on availability of irrigation. Which type of relationship of a system explained by the above statement?
(1) Series relation
(2) Parallel relation
(3) Feedback Relation
(4) Complex compound relation
Answer: 1
Q.33. Which one of the following sets of book and author is wrongly matched?
(1) Human Geography : A welfare Approach – D. M. Smith
(2) Geography and Geographers- D. Harvey
(3) Radical Geography – R. Peet
(4) A Geographical Introduction to History – L Febre
Answer: 2
Q.34. Which of the following information is used in altimetric frequency graph?
(1) Spot height
(2) Density of population
(3) Contour lines
(4) Cumulative frequency
Answer: 1
Q.35. Which type of maps are called cartograms?
(1) Maps on which very minute details about very small areas like towns and villages are given.
(2) The million sheets of the Survey of India.
(3) Maps on which diagrams and graphs are superimposed to show the spatial distribution of data
(4) A rough drawing without scale.
Answer: 3
Q.36. Which of the following Indian language group matches correctly with its speech area?
(1) North Dravidian – Odisha
(2) Dardic – Nicobar Islands
(3) Mon-Khmer-Assam
(4) Munda – Jammu and Kashmir
Answer: 1
Q.37. Which one of the following pair is wrongly matched?
Pass/Gap Connected Cities
(1) Shencottah gap – Trinuelveli
(2) Palghat gap – Coimbatore
(3) Durhanpur gap – Itarsi
(4) Thal ghat gap – Ahmedabad
Answer: 4
Q.38. Which one of the following sets of multipurpose project and associated liver is wrongly matched?
(1) Matatila – Banas river
(2) Banasagar – Sone river
(3) Ukal – Tapi river
(4) Papanasam-Tamrapani river
Answer: 1
Q.39. Which of the following region lies in the lowest seismic sensitive zone in India?
(1) Bundelkhand region
(2) Gangia region
(3) Konkan region
(4) Godavari basin
Answer: 1
Q.40. Which of the following set is wrongly matched?
(1) Kal – Baisakhi – West Bengal
(2) Cherry-Blossom – Andhra pradesh
(3) Mango showers – Karnataka
(4) Bardoli Chheerha – Assam
Answer: 2
Q.41. In which of the layers temperature decreases as altitude increases?
(A) Thermosphere
(B) Troposphere
(C) Mesosphere
(D) Stratosphere
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) A and B only
(2) B and C only
(3) B and D only
(4) C and D only
Answer: 2
Q.42. Which of the following is/are aquatic ecosystems?
(A) Grassland
(B) Wetland
(C) Delta
(D) Forests
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) A only
(2) A and B only
(3) B and C only
(4) B and D only
Answer: 3
Q.43. Which of the following are examples of chemical weathering?
(A) Movement of rock along fracture
(B) Rusting of Iron
(C) Breaking of Feldspar to clay
(D) Acid action
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) A and B only
(2) B and Curly
(3) A, B and C only
(4) B, C and D only
Answer: 4
Q.44. Which of the following statements are true about aerosols in the atmosphere?
(A) Aerosols include sea salts, fine soil, smoke, pollens, soot.
(B) Aerosols in the air contribute to the various hues of red and orange at sunrise and sunset
(C)The concentration of aerosols is maximum in mesosphere.
(D) Aerosols act as surfaces on which water vapour condenses.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) A and C only
(2) B and C only
(3) A, B and D only
(4) C and D only
Answer: 3
Q.45. Which of the following statements are NOT true about Spatial Analysis?
(A) The application of quantitative techniques in locational analysis is known as ‘spatial analysis’.
(B) It is not associated with the philosophy at positivism
(C) The generalization arrived at with the application of spatial analysis is based on: direction, distance and connection.
(D) It gut popularity due to deterministic approach in geography
Close the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) A and C only
(2) A and D only
(3) B and D only
(4) C and D only
Answer: 3
Q.46. Which of the following statements are correct?
(A) Agenda 21 was adopted in the 1992 Earth Summit held in Rio de Janeiro, Brazil
(B) Montreal protocol was also adopted in the 1992 Earth Summit at Rio de Janeiro, Brazil
(C) The main aim of Montreal protocol was to reduce carbon-di-oxide emissions by member nations.
(D) The Commission on Sustainable Development (CSD) was created in 1992 for effective follow-up of conference held in Rio de Janeiro, Brazil.
Close the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) A and B only
(2) A and C only
(3) A and D only
(4) C and D only
Answer: 3
Q.47. Which of the following factors may be attributed to the Urban decline?
(A) Changes in forms of transport
(B) Exhaustion of mineral deposits
(C) Climate change
(D) City governance
(E) Competition from nearby towns
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) A, B and C only
(2) A, B and E only
(3) A, B, D and E only
(4) A, C and D only
Answer: 2
Q.48. Which of the following options correctly represent new additions to improve the data quality by Census of India 2011?
(A) Option of ‘others’ – other than male/female
(B) Tenure status of land under cultivation
(C) Four new codes on disability
(D) Information about rentiers
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) A, D and E only
(2) A, B and D only
(3) A, B and E only
(4) A, C and D only
Answer: DROP
Q.49. Which of the following statements are NOT correct?
(A) Mahogany, Ebony and Rosewood are main trees of the Tropical Wet Evergreen Forest
(B) Sal and Teak are major species of the Tropical Monsoon Forest
(C) Chestnut tree is known as ‘axe-breaker’ in Chaco region of Paraguay and southern Brazil
(D) Chinchona tree bark is used to manufacture chewing gum.
(E) Tannin is found in the bark of hemlock, mangrove species and teak trees.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) B, C and D only
(2) A, C and E only
(3) A and B only
(4) C, D and E only
Answer: 4
Q.50. Which of the following defensive site cities may also be classified as ‘hilltop site cities’?
(A) badan
(B) Montreal
(C) Edinburgh
(D) New York
(E) Hamburg
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) B, D and E only
(2) A, B and D only
(3) A and C only
(4) A, C and E only
Answer: 3
Q.51. According to Ullmann the necessary elements of spatial interaction include:
(A) Complementarity
(B) Sustainability
(C) Convenience
(D) Intervening opportunities
(E) Transferability
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) A, C and E only
(2) C, D and E only
(3) A, D and E only
(4) A, B and C only
Answer: 3
Q.52. Which of the following pairs are matched correctly?
Cultural Region State
(A) Hadoti Rajasthan
(B) Khandesh Maharastra
(C) Baghelkhand Bihar
(D) Ruhelkhand Madhya Pradesh
(E) Malwa Punjab
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) A, B and C only
(2) B, C and D only
(3) C, D and E only
(4) A, B and E only
Answer: 4
Q.53. Which of the following represents main attributes of Jati?
(A) Jatis are hierarchically graded
(B) They invariably have a Jati-linked occupation.
(C) Members of a Jati generally share heterogenous culture
(D) Consideration of achievements and mobility determine interaction between different units
(E) Jatis are endogamous unit
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) A, B, C and E only
(2) A, B and E only
(3) A, C, D and E only
(4) A, B, D and E only
Answer: 2
Q.54. Which of the following criteria is used to study a state by political geographers?
(A) Power over the people of an area unrestrained by laws originating from outside the area.
(B) Recognition by a significant portion of the international community.
(C) Definite portion of earth’s land surface with recognized limits.
(D) Administration system to perform functions needed or desired by the people
(E) Organized means of transmitting goods, people, and ideas from one part of territory to another.
Chose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) A, B and C only
(2) B, C and D only
(3) C, D and E only
(4) A, B and E only
Answer: 3
Q.55. Which of the following statements are correct about impact of Darwin on Geographical thought?
(A) James Hutton demonstrated the theory of uniformitarianism in landform evolution.
(B) Fleure used struggle and selection concept in his studies on races, states and towns.
(C) Darwin’s work on the origin of atolls and the idea regarding slow transformation of biological species over time, together inspired Davis to develop his own theory of the cycle of erosion.
(D) Stoddart stressed the need for physiological study to assess environmental effects on man.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) A and B only
(2) B and C only
(3) A and C only
(4) C and D only
Answer: 3
Q.56. Which of the following statements are correct?
(A) Davisian model of cycle of erosion envisages space-dependent series of landform development.
(B) Penck’s model of geographical cycle envisages time independent series of landform development.
(C) Davisian geographical cycle over emphasized stage and gave less attention to structure.
(D) Penck emphasized that geomorphic forms are expressions of phase and rate of upliftment in relation to rate of degradation.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) B, C and D only
(2) A, B and C only
(3) B and C only
(4) C and D only
Answer: 1
Q.57. Consider the following statements related to resources and infrastructural development in India.
(A) Chromite deposits are found in the form of segregation masses and veins in ultra-basic rocks such as dunite, peridotite and serpentine.
(B) The objectives of Biosphere Reserves in India is to promote research on ecological conservation and industrial development.
(C) Jamnagar oil refinery has the largest installed capacity and uses imported crude petroleum.
(D) The ilmenite beach sands of Kerala contains the largest reserves of Monazite in India.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) B, C and D only
(2) A, B and C only
(3) A, B and D only
(4) A, C and D only
Answer: 4
Q.58. Which of the following correctly represent the main foci of geographical interest in electoral studies?
(A) Geography of Symbols
(B) Geography of Voting
(C) Geography of Voting Margins
(D) Geographic influences on Voting
(E) Geography of Representation
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) A, B and E only
(2) A, B, D and E only
(3) B, C, D and E only
(4) B, D and E only
Answer: 4
Q.59. Which of the following statements are not correct?
(A) Stubble burning contributes to air pollution.
(B) Discharge of warm water from thermal power plants into rivers does not contribute to thermal pollution.
(C) Noise pollution can cause emotional or psychological effects such as irritability, anxiety and stress.
(D) In mountainous areas, terrace farming is the only option to control soil erosion.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) A and B only
(2) B and C only
(3) C and D only
(4) B and D only
Answer: 4
Q.60. Which of the following statements are NOT correct regarding the concept of growth pole?
(A) Perroux’s original work focuses on the development of growth poles in economic space.
(B) Boudeville comprehensively excluded the geographical dimension from growth pole.
(C) The process of polarisation depends upon agglomeration economies.
(D) The trickle-down effect are of minimum interest to regional planners.
(E) Spatial interactions include movement of goods only.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) A and C only
(2) A, C and D only
(3) B, C, D and E only
(4) B, D and E only
Answer: 4
Q.61. Which of the following countries founded the organisation of the Petroleum Exporting Countries (OPEC) in 1960?
(A) Iran
(B) Iraq
(C) Indonesia
(D) Libya
(E) Saudi Arabia
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) A, B, D and E only
(2) A, C, D and E only
(3) A, B and E only
(4) A, B, C and E only
Answer: 3
Q.62. Which of the following statements are NOT correct?
(A) Spatial interaction is reflected in the flow of people, goods and information.
(B) Gravity model is used for spatial interaction analysis.
(C) Hurst applied concepts of conduction, convection and radiation of physics in his model of spatial interaction.
(D) The direction of spatial interaction is determined exclusively by intervening opportunities.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) A and B only
(2) A, B and C only
(3) B, C and D only
(4) C and D only
Answer: 4
Q.63. Which of the following statements are correct with reference to Weber’s Industrial location theory?
(A) It is based on the assumption of variable physical and cultural landscape.
(B) Entrepreneurs have perfect knowledge of location of raw material and the market.
(C) Agglomeration has no role in determining industrial location.
(D) There are multiple modes of transportation.
(E) It is based on principle of least- cost location
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) B and E only
(2) A, B and E only
(3) C, D and E only
(4) B, C and D only
Answer: 1
Q.64. Consider the following statements related to transport, agricultural and mineral resources in India.
(A) Konkan railway connects Roha to Kanyakumari and track measures 760 km.
(B) Pradhan Mantri Gram Sadak Yojana provides single all weather road connectivity to the habitation of 1000 persons or more.
(C) Maharashtra has a longer crushing period of sugarcane than Uttar Pradesh.
(D) Andhra Pradesh with the share of more than 98% of total production of mica is the leading mica producing state in India.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) B and C only
(2) A and B only
(3) B and D only
(4) C and D only
Answer: 4
Q.65. Consider the following statements regarding transportation and irrigation in India.
(A) Sirhind canal originates from Satluj river to supply water for irrigation in Rajasthan.
(B) Kerala state is bestowed with highest length of roads Km per 100 sq.km area among all states of India.
(C) Buckingham canal is the part of National Waterway No.5 of India.
(D) Tubewells, as mode of irrigation, provide water to the largest cultivated area of India.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) B and C only
(2) A and D only
(3) A and C only
(4) B and D only
Answer: 4
Q.66. Match List I with List II
List I (Local wind)
(A) Levanter
(B) Norwester
(C) Zonda
(D) Bise
List II (Type)
(I) Warm wind in Argentina
(II) Cold wind in France
(III) Cold wind in Southern Spain
(IV) Dry and gusty wind in New Zealand
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III
(2) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
(3) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV
(4) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
Answer: 2
Q.67. Match List I with List II
List I (Date)
(A) February 2
(B) April 22
(C) June 5
(D) September 16
List II (Celebrated as)
(I) Earth Day
(II) World Ozone Day
(III) World Wetland Day
(IV) World Environment Day
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
(2) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
(3) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
(4) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
Answer: 4
Q.68. Match List I with List II
List I (Consumers/Decomposers)
(A) Primary consumers
(B) Secondary consumers
(C) Tertiary consumers
(D) Decomposers
List II (Example)
(I) Fungi
(II) Deer
(III) Fox
(IV) Tiger
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
(2) A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I
(3) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
(4) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
Answer: 4
Q.69. Match List I with List II
List I (Work)
(A) Crop-combination analysis
(B) Isolated state
(C) Intervening opportunities
(D) Sequent Occupance
List II (Scholar)
(I) Stouffer
(II) Whittlesey, D
(III) Von Thunen
(IV) Weaver, J. C.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
(2) A-I, B-III, C-IV, D-II
(3) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
(4) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
Answer: 4
Q.70. Match List I with List II
List I (Concept)
(A) Primarrumpf
(B) Pediplain
(C) Panplane
(D) Peneplain
List II (Scholar)
(I) L.C. King
(II) W. M. Davis
(III) W. Penck
(IV) C. H. Crickmay
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV
(2) A-I, B-IV, C-III, D-II
(3) A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
(4) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
Answer: 4
Q.71. Match List I with List II
List (Theory about Origin of Tides)
(A) Dynamic theory
(B) Stationary wave theory
(C) Progressive wave theory
(D) Equilibrium theory
List II (Scholar)
(I) R. A. Harris
(II) Newton
(III) Laplace
(IV) William Whewell
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
(2) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
(3) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV
(4) A-I, B-III, C-IV, D-II
Answer: 2
Q.72. Match List I with List II
List I (Tributary)
(A) Kali Sindh
(B) Hasdeo
(C) Sindh
(D) Purna
List II (River)
(I) Yamuna
(II) Tapi
(III) Chambal
(IV) Mahanadi
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) A-I, B-IV, C-III, D-II
(2) A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I
(3) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
(4) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
Answer: 4
Q.73. Match List I with List II
List I (Major language)
(A) Dardic
(B) Mon-Khmer
(C) North Dravidian
(D) Austric
List II (Sub-language)
(I) Khasi
(II) Munda
(III) Shina
(IV) Gondi
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
(2) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
(3) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
(4) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
Answer: 4
Q.74. Match List I with List II
List I (Wind)
(A) Bores
(B) Eurus
(C) Notus
(D) Zephyrus
List II (Description)
(I) North wind, strong and cool with clear skies
(II) East wind, warm and gentle
(III) South wind, wet and sometimes violent
(IV) West wind, dreaded, balmy with gale force
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
(2) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
(3) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
(4) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
Answer: 2
Q.75. Match List I with List II
List (Statement)
(A) Regional geographers may perhaps be trying to put boundaries that do not exist around areas that do not matter.
(B) Innovation of diffusion analysis represent perhaps the most successful incorporation of time into geography outside of historical geography.
(C) “To identify geographical problems……. perhaps to solve them.”
(D) “Historical processes……. may provide the basis for structuring of landscape as a way of life.”
List (Expert)
(I) Norton
(II) Ley
(III) Kimble
(IV) Stoddart
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
(2) A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III
(3) A-II, B III. C-I, D-IV
(4) A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III
Answer: 1
Q.76. Arrange the following principles/concepts/theories of geomorphology in chronological order (old to recent) in terms of inception.
(A) Principle of Uniformitarianism
(B) Dynamic Equilibrium Theory
(C) Die Morphologische Analyse
(D) Geographical cycle of erosion
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) A, B, C, D
(2) C, A, D, B
(3) A, D, C, B
(4) A, C, D, B
Answer: 3
Q.77. Identify the correct sequence of the food chain in a marsh community.
(A) Butterfly
(B) Hawks
(C) Snake
(D) Green plants
(E) Frogs
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) C, B, D, E, A
(2) D, A, B, E, C
(3) D, A, E, C, B
(4) D, E, A, C, B
Answer: 3
Q.78. Identify the correct sequence of the concentric zones of different land uses from the city center in Von Thunen’s model?
(A) Crop farming without fallow
(B) Firewood and timber
(C) Market gardening and milk production
(D) Three-field system
(E) Livestock ranching
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) B, C, D, A, E
(2) C, D, B, A, E
(3) C, B, A, D, E
(4) C, D, E, B, A
Answer: 3
Q.79. Arrange the following countries in a descending order of their Human Development Index (HDI), 2021 ranking.
(A) Australia
(B) Norway
(C) Switzerland
(D) Iceland
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) B, C, D, A
(2) B, C, A, D
(3) C, B, A, D
(4) C, B, D, A
Answer: 4
Q.80. Arrange the following regions (in descending order) in terms of proportion of non-religious population in the world.
(A) Anglo-America
(B) South-Pacific
(C) East Asia
(D) Eastern Europe
(E) Latin America
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) D, C, B, E, A
(2) C, D, B, A, E
(3) D, C, E, B, A
(4) C, D, A, E, B
Answer: 2
Q.81. Arrange the following publications in chronological order
(A) The Nature of Geography
(B) Critique of Pure Reason
(C) Origin of Species
(D) Exceptionalism in Geography
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) B, C, A, D
(2) A, C, B, D
(3) C, D, B, A
(4) D, A, C, B
Answer: 1
Q.82. Which is the correct sequence of radiation from longest to shortest wavelengths?
(A) X-rays
(B) Visible
(C) Infrared
(D) Ultraviolet
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) C, D, B, A
(2) C, B, D, A
(3) D, A, B, C
(4) C, A, D, B
Answer: 2
Q.83. Identify the sequence of clouds in sky (first to last) as a warm front approaches an observer/place in the middle latitudes.
(A) Cirrostratus
(B) Nimbostratus
(C) Altostratus
(D) Cirrus
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) D, A, C, B
(2) C, D, B, A
(3) D, C, A, B
(4) D, B, C, A
Answer: 1
Q.84. Identify the correct sequence of the major salts (in percentage) in the ocean waters in descending order.
(A) Magnesium chloride
(B) Calcium carbonate
(C) Sodium chloride
(D) Magnesium sulphate
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) B, D, C, A
(2) C, A, D, B
(3) C, D, B, A
(4) D, C, A, B
Answer: 2
Q.85. Arrange the longitudinal fault lines of Himalayas from south to north.
(A) Himalayan Frontal Fault (HFF)
(B) Main Boundary Thrust (MBT)
(C) Indus-Tsang Po Suture Zone (ITSZ)
(D) Main Central Thrust (MCT)
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) A, B, C, D
(2) A, B, D, C
(3) B, C, A, D
(4) D, B, A, C
Answer: 2
Q.86. Given below are two statements:
Statement I: Maximum salinity is seen at Tropic of Cancer and the reason may be low rainfall, high evaporation and high atmospheric pressure.
Statement II: Minimum salinity is seen in temperate zone because of excess of evaporation and larger supplies of fresh water.
In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
(3) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
(4) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.
Answer: 3
Q.87. Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): El Nino has a strong effect on marine life along the Peru coast.
Reason (R): During El Nino, upwelling of nutrient rich cold water is weakened which affects phytoplankton.
In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(3) (A) is false but (R) is true.
Answer: 1
Q.88. Given below are two statements about Structuralism/ Structuralists:
Statement I: Structuralism is concerned with discovering the things that are real and important in social life by looking beneath the taken-for-granted socio-economic categories.
Statement II: Structuralist appreciated the human creativity and intentionality related to individual’s lives. In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
(3) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
(4) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.
Answer: 3
Q.89. Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): Landscapes dominated by a collection of folk customs change relatively little over time, whereas modern communications facilitate frequent changes in popular customs.
Reason (R): Folk culture is more likely to vary from time to time at a given place where as popular culture is more likely to vary from place to place at a given time.
In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct.
(4) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct.
Answer: 3
Q.90. Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): Insular countries are geopolitically powerful states.
Reason (R): Geographical location, advantage of navigational facilities and access to resources are the unique advantages of insular countries.
In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct.
(4) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct.
Answer: 1
Q.91. Read the following passage and answer questions:
Risk is a product of two components: the hazard, which can be defined as the probability of occurrence of a specific event within a given time period; and the consequence, typically measured by the cost of damage or loss of life. Several environmental and human factors contribute to landslide hazard, principally by determining the susceptibility of a slope or geological system to instability. These preparatory factors include slope geometry, hydrology (surface and groundwater), soil type, underlying geology, vegetation and slope loading. Landslide triggering factors include rainfall, earthquakes, volcanic activity, changes in groundwater, erosion or undercutting and human activities (e.g. mining, construction or deforestation). Hydrological processes can exert a significant and dynamic influence on slope stability, as both a landslide preparatory factor, in terms of pore pressure and groundwater levels within the slope, and as a landslide trigger factor due to rainfall infiltration or pore pressure changes. Depending on the hydrological properties of the slope material, an increase in moisture content and pore-water pressure can reduce the mechanical strength of the slope to the point of failure. Landslide consequences depend on the type and magnitude of the landslide; the process of emplacement or runout, which determines the rate, travel distance and volume of debris (the hazard footprint); and the exposure and vulnerability of elements within the area of impact. Landslides can destroy or bury buildings, infrastructure and crops, cut off transport links, water and power supplies, and result in significant direct and indirect economic losses.
Q.91. What do you mean by hazard foot-print of landslides?
(1) Process of emplacement.
(2) Increase in moisture content.
(3) Travel distance and volume of debris triggered by a landslide.
(4) Hydrological property of area.
Answer: 3
Q.92. The consequences of landslide mainly depend upon:
(1) Type and magnitude of landslide.
(2) Low intensity and low frequency of landslide.
(3) Space and time of occurrence of landslide.
(4) Instability and slope loading of the area.
Answer: 1
Q.93. Which process exerts a significant and dynamic influence on slope stability?
(1) Underlying geology.
(2) Slope geometry.
(3) Slope loading.
(4) Hydrological process.
Answer: 4
Q.94. Which are the triggering factors for occurence of landslides?
(1) Slope geometry, soil type and slope loading.
(2) Rainfall, earthquake and changes in ground water.
(3) Hydrology, underlying geology and vegetation.
(4) Slope geometry, rainfall and soil type.
Answer: 2
Q.95. Geomorphic risk is defined as:
(1) Hazard in a given space and exposure.
(2) Hazard in a given time and adaptation.
(3) Probability of occurence of extreme event in the given time and loss of life and property.
(4) Vulnerability in given time and occurence of hazard.
Answer: 3
Read the following passage carefully and answer questions:
Thomas Malthus was an English clergyman who, in 1798, published an Essay on the Principles of Population in which he put forward the view that “the power of population is indefinitely greater than the power of the earth to produce subsistence for man.” He thought that a balance could only be maintained if famine, disease or war periodically increased the death rate and reduced population growth. His pessimistic ideas were accepted by several other 19th century scholars in England and France. At the end of the 19th century, the population of England was only about 10 million, but much of their food supply had to be produced from the limited agricultural land of the country. Changes in land tenure, brought about by enclosure of the old common fields and the formation of large farms in the place of small scattered plots led to rural depopulation. The towns, especially those where the new factory industries had been established, grew very rapidly and were overcrowded dirty and unhealthy. The people who lived in them were poor, under-fed, overworked and had little resistance to disease. Thus, had food supply been reduced or population expanded too rapidly, these people would have suffered starvation and epidemics would have reduced the population. This has already happened twice during England’s history, the Black Death of fourteenth century and the Great Plague of the seventeenth century coincided with periods when harvest was bad and there were food shortages. Hunger reduced resistance to diseases and bubonic plague caused the death of many thousands of people. Malthus was afraid that something similar would happen again. In his time, great advances were being made in the treatment and control of diseases such as cholera, typhoid and smallpox which were still rife in England and Europe. This meant that death rates, and particularly infant mortality rates, were falling. Malthus calculated that population could double every twenty-five years, but no similar increases in food supplies could be expected. He could not have foreseen the tremendous changes which were to take place in the nineteenth and twentieth century.
Q.96. According to Malthus, what is the relationship between population growth and earth’s resources?
(1) Population grows rapidly as compared to subsistence produced from earth.
(2) Population growth is not related with earth’s resources.
(3) Population growth may be checked by famine, disease or war.
(4) Population doubles every 25 years.
Answer: 1
Q.97. Which one of the following options is considered as the best description of Malthusian perspective related to population growth and resources?
(1) Optimistic
(2) Neutral
(3) Pessimistic
(4) Critical
Answer: 3
Q.98. The Great Plague in England’s history occured in which period?
(1) Fourteenth century
(2) Thirteenth century
(3) Seventeenth century
(4) Fifteenth century
Answer: 3
Q.99. What factor(s) was/were responsible for the deaths of people during Black Death and Great Plague in England?
(1) Starvation
(2) Plague
(3) Poor medical infrastructure
(4) Starvation and Plague
Answer: 4
Q.100. Improvement in the treatment and control of diseases in England and Europe helped to substantially reduce mortality in which age group of the population?
(1) Adult population
(2) Infant population
(3) Older population
(4) Older children
Answer: 2
PDF Name: DECEMBER 2022 SHIFT II Geography Paper 2 NTA UGC NET
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