DEC 2015 PAPER 3 UGC NET GEOGRAPHY SOLVED PAPER
Keywords: DEC 2015 Geography paper question paper , paper 3 geography DEC 2015 official question paper, solved question paper dec 2015 with answer key, NET paper 3 geography dec 2015, DEC 2015 p 3 geography solved paper, solved paper geography ugc net, cbse ugc net solved paper DECEMBER 2015, DEC 2015 solved paper, paper 3 DEC2015 geography paper solution.
So, This is the official Questions Paper and Answer Key for the paper 3 geography conducted on DEC 2015, taken from www.cbsenet.nic.in
Note: This paper contains fifty (50) multiple choice questions, each questions carrying two (2) marks. Attempt all of them.
(PDF) For download pdf file of question paper go to the bottom of this post.
Q.1. Which of the following authors is associated with the concept of Geosyncline?
(1) Penck and Davis
(2) Wooldridge and Morgan
(3) Hall and Dana
(4) Wooldring and Lapichon
Answer: 3
Q.2. Match List –I with List-II and select the correct answer from the codes given below:
List – I (Author)
(a) K.W. Butzer
(b) W.M. Davis
(c) C. Embleton, et al
(d) J. Thornes, et al
List – II (Book)
(i) Process in Geomorphology
(ii) Geomorphology and time
(iii) Geomorphology from the Earth
(iv) The Geomorphic Cycle
Codes:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
(2) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(3) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
(4) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
Answer: 4
Q.3. Which one of the following plateau can be considered as intermonatane?
(1) Brazilian
(2) Indian
(3) Tibatian
(4) Arabian
Answer: 3
Q.4. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and other labelled as Reason (R). Select your answer from the codes given below:
Assertion (A): Eskers are the features formed due to the depositional action of wind.
Reason (R): Eskers are the outcome of Fluvio-glacial deposition.
Codes:
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A and (R are true, but (R ) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(4) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Answer: 4
Q.5. Negative movements of baselevel produce:
(1) Rejuvenation
(2) Stabilisation
(3) Attrition
(4) Saltation
Answer: 1
Q.6. Consider the following rock characteristics:
(a) These are layered
(b) These contain fossils
(c) These are transported rocks
(d) These are formed in water bodies
Which of the above characteristics is true of Sedimentary rocks?
Codes:
(1) (a), (b) and (c)
(2) (a), (b) and (d)
(3) (a), and (d)
(4) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
Answer: 4
Q.7. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer from the codes given below:
List-I (Place of deposition)
(a) Channel
(b) Channel margin
(c) Overbank flood plain
(d) Valley margin
List-II (Name of deposition)
(i) Vertical accretion deposits
(ii) Lag deposits
(iii) Colluvium
(iv) Lateral accretion deposits
Codes:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv)
(2) (iv) (ii) (i) (iii)
(3) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)
(4) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)
Answer: 3
Q.8. Which one of the following is features is formed when the roof of a limestone Cavern collapses?
(1) Tarn
(2) Polje
(3) Swallow hole
(4) Doline
Answer: 2
Q.9. Which one of the following is devoid of atmosphere?
(1) Mesosphere
(2) Stratosphere
(3) Magnetosphere
(4) Thermosphere
Answer: 3
Q.10. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and other labelled as Reason (R). Select your answer from the codes given below: (© www.geographercorner.com / netset corner)
Assertion (A): Presence of in the earth’s atmosphere is essential.
Reason (R): can absorb heat.
Codes:
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(4) (A) is false, but (R) is true
Answer: 1
Q.11. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer from the codes given below:
List-I (Gase in the atmosphere above 100 km altitude)
(a) Nitrogen
(b) Oxygen
(c) Helium
(d) Hydrogen
List-II (Altitudinal range)
(i) 200-1100 km
(ii) 1100 – 3500 km
(iii) 100 – 200 km
(iv) 3500 km and above
Codes:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (iv) (ii) (i) (iii)
(2) (iii) (i) (ii) (iv)
(3) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
(4) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv)
Answer: 2
Q.12. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and other laballed as Reason (R). Select your answer from the codes given below:
Assertion (A): Tropical cyclones have a life span of about one week time.
Reason (R): They can produce low amount of rainfall due to low atmospheric pressure.
Codes:
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(4) (A) is false, but (R) is true
Answer: 2
Q.13. Which one of the following is essential for the formation of equatorial westerlies?
(1) Large-scale earthquake over the equator.
(2) Shifting of trade-wind belt towards poles.
(3) Shifting of polar easterlies towards equator.
(4) Large-scale forest-fire in the equatorial rain forest.
Answer: 2
Q.14. A type of climate after Koppen which is characterised by an almost uniform distribution of precipitation throughout the year with the precipitation for the driest month more than 6 cms. And a very low daily range of temperature is devoted by:
(1) Aw
(2) Af
(3) Am
(4) As
Answer: 2
Q.15. Which of the following is a local cold wind?
(1) Chinook
(2) Bora
(3) Foelin
(4) Khainsin
Answer: 2
Q.16. At which of the following altitudinal ranges ozone is found in concentrated form?
(1) 10 – 25 km
(2) 15 – 35 km
(3) 35 – 50 km
(4) 50 – 65 km
Answer: 2
Q.17. Identify the correct normally occurring life cycle of frontal depressions from the following:
(1) 1 – 2 days
(2) 2 – 3 days
(3) 3 – 4 days
(4) 4 – 5 days
Answer: 4
Q.18. Maximum density of sea water is at temperature:
(1) 20 C
(2) 40 C
(3) 60 C
(4) 250 C
Answer: 2
Q.19. Which one of the following is correct arrangement of oceans in ascending order of their size?
(1) India – Arctic – Atlantic – Pacific
(2) Arctic – Indian – Atlantic – Pacific
(3) Pacific – Atlantic – Indian – Arctic
(4) Atlantic – Pacific – Arctic – Indian
Answer: 2
Q.20. Match List – I with List-II and select the correct answer from the code given below: (© www.geographercorner.com / netset corner)
List – I (Oceans)
(a) Indian
(b) North Pacific
(c) South Pacific
(d) Atlantic
List – II (Currents)
(i) EI – Nino
(ii) Kuroshio
(iii) Monsoon Drift
(iv) Gulf Stream
Codes:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(2) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
(3) (i) (iv) (iii) (ii)
(4) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
Answer: 2
Q.21. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer from the codes given below:
List-I (Ocean depth)
(a) 0 – 500 metres
(b) 500 -1000 metres
(c) 1000 – 1500 metres
(d) > 1500 metres
List – II (Thermal layers)
(i) Cold
(ii) Cool
(iii) Warm
(iv) Thermocline
Codes:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(2) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
(3) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i)
(4) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)
Answer:
Q.22. Ocean waves obtain their energy from:
(1) Solar system
(2) Hot spring
(3) River water
(4) Blowing wind
Answer: 4
Q.23. Over the past century world sea lecels has risen by around:
(1) 15 cm
(2) 25 cm
(3) 35 cm
(4) 45 cm
Answer: 1
Q.24. Identify the correct sequence of vegetation belts in an ascending order in mountain environment from the following:
(1) Submontane, Montane, Subalpine, Alpine
(2) Alpine, Subalpine, Montane, subalpine
(3) Montane, Submontane, Alpine, Subalpine
(4) Alpine, Montane, Subalpine, Submontane
Answer: 1
Q.25. Who was the first person to divide the circle into 360 degree?
(1) Ptolemy
(2) Herodotus
(3) Eratoshenes
(4) Hipparchus
Answer: 4
Q.26. ‘There is a strong relationship between environment, image and decision making.’ This statement pertains to:
(1) Humanism
(2) Behaviouralism
(3) Radicalism
(4) Welfare Approach
Answer: 2
Q.27. Who are considered as the founders of Mathematical Geography?
(1) Plato and Aristotle
(2) Thales and Anaximeneder
(3) Hecataeus and Herodotus
(4) Ptolemy
Answer: 2
Q.28. Who wrote the book Meteorologica?
(1) Aristotle
(2) Posidonius
(3) Plato
(4) Thales
Answer: 1
Q.29. Who laid the foundation of modern geographical thought?
(1) Humboldt and Ritter
(2) Kant and Varenius
(3) Hettner and Richthopen
(4) Humboldt and Davis
Answer: 1
Q.30. Read the following statements:
(a) Ratzel dominated German Geography in the second half of the 19th century.
(b) Ratzel coined the term Anthropogeographic.
(c) Ratzel was highly influenced by Darwin’s theory of evolution of species.
Which of the above statements are correctly associated with Ratzel?
(1) (a), (b) and (c)
(2) (a) and (b)
(3) (b) and (c)
(4) Only (c)
Answer: 1
Q.31. Which is the correct sequence in chronological order of the following Greeks who contributed vastly to the evolution of geographical thought during the ancient period?
(1) Aristotle, Eratosthenes, Anaximander, Ptolemy
(2) Eratosthenes, Anaximander, Ptolemy, Aristotle
(3) Anaximander, Aristotle, Eratosthenes, Ptolemy
(4) Ptolemy, Anaximander, Aristorle, Eratosthenes
Answer: 3
Q.32. Which one of the concept describes the absence of cities and towns within a radius of 75 km from a large city?
(1) Urban Clusters
(2) Urban Dispersals
(3) Urban Agglomeration
(4) Urban Shadows
Answer: 4
Q.33. How physiological density of population is defined?
(1) A ratio between total population and total area.
(2) A ration between total rural population and total rural area.
(3) A ration between total population and total cultivated area.
(4) Both (2) and (3)
Answer: 3
Q.34. As per the estimate of 2014, how much population of the world is found in Africa?
(1) About 12%
(2) About 14%
(3) About 16%
(4) About 18%
Answer: 3
Q.35. The ‘Triangular Pattern’ of rural settlements develop generally
(1) At the bank of the straight rivers
(2) At the confluence of two rivers
(3) Between two hills
(4) At the confluence of two rivers and one hill
Answer: 2
Q.36. Which one of the following techniques would you consider for estimation of requirements of population in an area for planning allocations?
(1) Carrying Capacity analysis
(2) Cost-benefit analysis
(3) Population projection
(4) Rank-size rule
Answer: 3
Q.37. Which of the following exhibits “Cumulative percentages of population against cumulative percentages of area”?
(1) Gravity Model
(2) Beta Index
(3) Ogive Curve
(4) Lorenz Curve
Answer: 4
Q.38. The density of population is highest in which of the following states of India according to the census of 2011?
(1) Bihar
(2) Punjab
(3) Uttar Pradesh
(4) West Bengal
Answer: 1
Q.39. Consider the following road network diagram of an area:
Select the correct connectivity matric for the above network:
Answer: 1
Q.40. Which of the following industrial regions of the India is called as ‘Ruhr of India’?
(1) Bengaluru – Tamil Nadu Industrial Region
(2) Chhota Nagpur Industrial Region
(3) Vishakhapatnam – Guntur Industrial Region
(4) Hugli Industrial Region
Answer: 2
(© www.geographercorner.com / netset corner)
Q.41. Match List – I with List-II and select the correct answer from the code given below:
List- I (Industries)
(a) Cottage
(b) Small
(c) Major
(d) Foot – Loose
List – II (Activity/technology)
(i) Petroleum refining
(ii) Information Technology
(iii) Locks Manufactyring
(iv) Embroidry
Codes:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (i) (iv) (ii) (iii)
(2) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)
(3) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
(4) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv)
Answer: 3
Q.42. In which Island the ‘Rice Bowl’ of japan is situated?
(1) Kyushu
(2) Honshu
(3) Shi koku
(4) Ryuku
Answer: 2
Q.43. Which one of the following authors suggested a fivefold division of adopters on the basis of the time lag between receiving and acting upon new information as shown in diagram below?
(1) E.M. Rogers
(2) L.W. Bowden
(3) Z. Giriliches
(4) T. Hagerstrend
Answer: 1
Q.44. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer from the codes given below:
List-I (Authors)
(a) P.R. Gould
(b) E.L. Ullman
(c) J.C. Weaver
(d) D. Ricardo
List – II (Techniques)
(i) Croup – Combination Analysis
(ii) Concept of Economic Rent
(iii) Game Theory
(iv) Flow Theory
Codes:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)
(2) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
(3) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
(4) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
Answer: 2
Q.45. Which one of the following authors examined the strure of urban settements prior to the impact of large-scale industrialization in book ‘the Pre-Industrial City Past and Present’?
(1) M. Pacioue
(2) G. Sjoberg
(3) P.Hall
(4) D. Dwyer
Answer: 2
Q.46. Match the List-I with List –II and select the correct answer from the codes given below: (© www.geographercorner.com / netset corner)
List-I (Human Races)
(a) Mongoloid
(b) Caucasoid
(c) Australoid
(d) Negroid
List-II (Majority of persons from)
(i) Sri Lanka
(ii) South Korea
(iii) Ethiopia
(iv) Germany
Codes:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (i) (iii) (iv) (ii)
(2) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)
(3) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i)
(4) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv)
Answer: 2
Q.47. Which of the following water ways has more politico-nomic significance?
(1) Palk Strait
(2) Malacca Strait
(3) Suez Canal
(4) Panama Canal
Answer: 3
Q.48. H.J. Mackinder was the professor of which subject at London University?
(1) Political Science
(2) Economics
(3) Geography
(4) Social Anthropology
Answer: 3
Q.49. To control pollution from ships and offshore platforms is taken care of by which of the following acts provision by the Government of India?
(1) Major Port Trust Act, 1963
(2) Merchant Shipping Act, 1958
(3) Maritime Zone Act, 1976
(4) India Ports Act, 1908
Answer: 2
Q.50. Which of the following is not correct matched?
(1) Batwa Tribe and Congo Basin
(2) Ruwala tribe and Central Iran
(3) Inuit and Canada
(4) Yukhagir and Siberia
Answer: 2
Q.51. Which one of the following author’s theory of primate cities focuses on the forces of agglomeration and cumulative effects of agglomeration in the growth of large cities?
(1) Walter Christaller
(2) G.K. Zipf
(3) C. Robert Mayfield
(4) Mark Jefferson
Answer: 4
Q.52. Which of the following activities does not come under the scope of Drought prone Areas Programme?
(1) Development and management of irrigation resources.
(2) Soil and moisture conservation and afforestation
(3) Restruring of cropping pattern and pasture development.
(4) Flood control and erosion.
Answer: 4
Q.53. Which of the following forces has expansionary momentum emanating from the centres of economic expansion to other regions?
(1) Centripetal
(2) Centrifugal
(3) Gravitational
(4) Pull
Answer: 2
Q.54. Growth pole Model is postulated by:
(1) Smith
(2) Perroux
(3) Eratosthenese
(4) Haggerstand
Answer: 2
Q.55. Which of the following sets of Macro and Meso regions were delineted by the town and Country Planning Organization of India?
(1) 13 Macro Regions and 32 Meso Regions
(2) 15 Macro Regions and 61 Meso Regions
(3) 7 Macro Regions and 42 Meso Regions
(4) 13 Macro Regions and 35 Meso Regions
Answer: 4
Q.56. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer from the code given below:
List-I (Zone )
(a) Non Ecumene
(b) Intensive Ecumene
(c) Sporadic Ecumene
(d) Extensive Ecumene
List-II (Characteristics)
(i) Very Scattered Economic Activities
(ii) Rular Occupancy; extensive type of agriculture
(iii) Empty space with no foreseeable development
(iv) Urban Occupancy and industrial patterns, intensive agriculture
Codes:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)
(2) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)
(3) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
(4) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
Answer: 2
Q.57. The first master plan of Delhi was passed in which of the following year?
(1) 1952
(2) 1962
(3) 1965
(4) 1968
Answer: 2
Q.58. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer from the codes given below:
List-I
(a) Central Place Theory
(b) Multiple Nuclei Theory
(c) The Law of Retail Trade Gravitation
(d) Breaking Point Theory
List-II
(i) Land use pattern in large cities developed around a number of discrete centres rather than a single centre
(ii) Position of the breaking point between two towns
(iii) Hexagonal Service Area
(iv) Residential belt of considerable density surrounding the C.B.D
Codes:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(2) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
(3) (i) (iv) (iii) (ii)
(4) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
Answer: 2
Q.59. Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer from the codes given below:
List – I (Zones)
(a) Slum Zone
(b) Zone of Assimilation
(c) Suburban Zone
(d) Zone of Discard
List – II (Definitions)
(i) Lack in prestige and characterised by low grade retail stores, warehouses and wholesale trading premises and a high proportion of vacant property
(ii) Extensive areas of low density housing
(iii) Extensive redevelopment and spread of shops, offices and hotels into former residential areas
(iv) Residential belt of considerable density surrounding the C.B.D.
Codes:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(2) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
(3) (i) (iv) (iii) (ii)
(4) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
Answer: 1
Q.60. Match List – I With List – II and select the correct answer from the codes given below:
List – I (National Park)
(a) Fossil
(b) Brahmagiri
(c) Guindy
(d) Rohia
List – II (State)
(i) Himachal Pradesh
(ii) Madhya Pradesh
(iii) Tamil Nadu
(iv) Karnataka
Codes:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(2) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
(3) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
(4) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)
Answer: 4
Q.61. Given below are two statement, one labelled as Assertion (A) and other labelled as Reason (R). Select your answer from the codes given below:
Assertion (A): Indian economy is diversifying its base towards non-primary activities
Reason (R): During Post-Independence Period service sectors are slowly but gradually increasing is contribution to Gross Domestic Products in India
Codes:
(1) Both (A) and are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(4) (A) is false, but (R) is true
Answer: 1
Q.62. The Rajasthan Canal (Indira Gandhi Canal) draws its water from the rivers:
(1) Yamuna river
(2) Chambal river
(3) Ravi
(4) Satluj and Beas
Answer: 4
Q.63. Which of the state Union Territory has continuously maintained favourable sex ration since census are conducted in India?
(1) Arunachal Pradesh
(2) Meghalaya
(3) Kerala
(4) Puducherry
Answer: 3
Q.64. Which group of state GDP share in 2013-2014 was greater than population share and area share?
(1) Arunachal Pradesh, Nagaland, Assam, Meghalaya, Chattisgarh and Rajasthan
(2) Uttar Pradesh
(3) Bihar
(4) West Bengal
Answer: 3
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Q.65. Which one of the following states recorded the highest population in the Census 2011?
(1) Uttar Pradesh
(2) Maharashtra
(3) Bihar
(4) West Bengal
Answer: 1
Q.66. Which region of India is known as the ‘Rice Bowl’?
(1) Indo-Gangetic Plain
(2) Krishna-Godavari Delta Region
(3) North Eastern Region
(4) Kerala and Tamil Nadu
Answer: 2
Q.67. Which one of the following data can be represented by means of Choropleth map?
(1) Location Specific
(2) Point Specific
(3) Area specific
(4) Line Specific
Answer: 3
Q.68. Match List-I with List – II and select the correct answer from the codes given below:
List – I (Aspect)
(a) Rural and Urban Population
(b) population density
(c) Relative relief
(d) Decadal Population
List – II (Diagram)
(i) Comparative Bars
(ii) Isolines
(iii) Dots and Spheres
(iv) Choropleth
Codes:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
(2) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(3) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
(4) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
Answer: 4
Q.69. Which of the following diagrams are called Pie-diagrams?
(1) Pictorial diagrams
(2) Circle and sector diagrams
(3) Ring diagrams
(4) Sphere diagrams
Answer: 2
Q.70. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer from the codes given below:
List – I (Satellite)
(a) IRS – 1A
(b) SPOT – 3
(c) LANDSAT – V
(d) INSAT Series
List – II (Altitude)
(i) 36,000 kms
(ii) 705 kms
(iii) 932 kms
(iv) 832 kms
Codes:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
(2) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
(3) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
(4) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
Answer: 1
Q.71. Among the following water which will have highest spectral reflectance in visible band?
(1) Clear water
(2) Clay filled/ Suspended water
(3) Algae mixes with water
(4) Silt and Algae mixed water
Answer: 2
Q.72. Which of the following will happen when satellite images are geo-referenced?
(1) Contrast images are improved
(2) Positional errors are removed
(3) Errors in DN values are removed
(4) None of the above
Answer: 2
Q.73. Match List-I with List – II and select the correct answer from codes given below:
List – I (Linear lengths)
(a) Nanometre
(b) Micrometre
(c) MIllimetre
(d) Metre
List – II (Fractional measures)
(i) 10 – 6
(ii) 10 0
(iii) 10 – 9
(iv) 10 – 3
Codes:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(2) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
(3) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
(4) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)
Answer: 3
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Q.74. Lorenz curve is used to find out which of the following?
(1) Relative concentration of a phenomenon
(2) Absolute concentration of a phenomenon
(3) Both relative and absolute concentration of a phenomenon
(4) Probability of dispersion of a phenomenon
Answer: 1
Q.75. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer from the codes given below:
List – I (Bands of Energy)
(a) Photographic
(b) Optical
(c) Reflected Infrared
(d) Far Infrared
List –II (Wavelength in µm.)
(i) 3.0 – 15.0
(ii) 0.7 – 0.3
(iii) 0.3 – 15.0
(iv) 0.3 – 0.9
Codes:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(2) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(3) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
(4) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)
Answer: 1