JUNE 2015 PAPER 3 UGC NET GEOGRAPHY SOLVED PAPER WITH PDF

JUNE 2015 PAPER 3 GEOGRAPHY

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So, This is the official Questions Paper  and Answer Key for the paper 3 geography conducted on June 2015, taken from www.cbsenet.nic.in

Note: This paper contains fifty (75) multiple choice questions, each questions carrying two (2) marks. Attempt all of them.

(PDF) For download pdf file of question paper go to the bottom of this post.

Q.1. Which of the following is formed due to tectonic forces?

(1) Rift valley

(2) Hanging valley

(3) Super imposed valley

(4) Antecedent valley

Answer: 1

 

Q.2. Drowned glaciated valleys in high latitudes regions are known as:

(1) Ocean trenches

(2) Submarine ridges

(3) Fiords

(4) Submarine canons

Answer:  3

 

Q.3. Match List-I with List – II and select the correct answer from the codes given: (UGC NET- JUNE 2015)

List-I List-II
(a) Basalt (i) Geneis
(b) Granite (ii) Quartzite
(c) Sandstone  (iii) Schist
(d) Shale (iv) Slate

 Codes:

(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (ii)  (i)     (iv)     (iii)   
(2) (i)  (ii)     (iii)     (iv)   
(3) (iv)  (ii)     (i)     (iii)   
(4) (iii)  (i)     (ii)     (iv)   

Answer:  4

Q.4. Consider the following statement regarding kants view on the origin of the earth:

(a) Kant introduced the Newtonian law of gravitation in his theory.

(b) Kant developed his theory accepting the principle of conservation of angular momentum.

(c) Though Laplace put forward the nebular hypothesis of origin of the earth, Kant is regarded by many as the real propounder of the nebular hypothesis.

Which of the statements are correct?

(1) (a) and (b)

(2) (b) and (c)

(3) (a) and (c)

(4) (a) (b) and (c)

Answer: 4

 

Q.5. Excessive folding results in:

(1) Reverse fault

(2) Geosyncline

(3) Nappe formation

(4) Block disintegration

Answer:  3

 

Q.6. “All coral reefs begun as fringe reefs around an inland”. This was indicated in:

(1) Day’s glacial control theory

(2) Daly’s subsidence theory

(3) Darwin’s glacial control theory

(4) Darwin’s subsidence theory

Answer: 4

 

Q.7. Guttenberg discontinuity is found between the:

(1) Upper core and lower core

(2) Mantle and the core

(3) Crust and the mantle

(4) Upper mantle and lower mantle

Answer:  2

 

Q.8. Who postulated the concept of Sea floor spreading?

(1) W.J. Morgan

(2) T. J. Wilson

(3) Le Pichon

(4) Harry Hess

Answer: 4

 

Q.9. Mauna Loa, in Hawaii is famous for:

(1) Botanical garden

(2) Monitoring rainfall

(3) Monitoring rainfall

(4) Continuous monitoring of atmospheric since 1957

Answer: 4

 

Q.10. Match the List-I and List-II select the correct answer from the codes given below: (UGC NET- JUNE 2015)

List-I               

(a) Isohel        

(b) Isohaline

(c) Isotach     

(d) Isoneph   

List-II

(i) Line joining places having same average percentage of cloudiness

(ii) line joining the places having same duration of sunshine

(iii) line joining the place having equal salinity in the ocean

(iv) Line joining place having equal wind speed

Codes:

       (a) (b) (c) (d)

(1) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)

(2) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

(3) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)

(4) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)

Answer:3

 

Q.11. The only truly continuous pressure belt on the earth is:

(1) Southern hemisphere subtropical high

(2) Northern hemisphere subtropical high

(3) Equatorial low

(4) Southerm hemisphere sub polar low

Answer: 4

 

Q.12. Which two global winds originate from the subtropical highs?

(1) Polar easterlies and westerlies

(2) Trade winds and polar easterlies

(3) Trade winds and westerlies

(4) Chinook and Foehn

Answer: 3

 

Q.13. An aircraft is flying at an altitude of 10 km. At that altitude the temperature is − 40°C. What is the ambient temperature on the ground?

(1) 24°C

(2) 25°C

(3) 30°C

(4) 20°C

Answer: 2

 

Q.14. Which one of the following is not a necessary condition for condensation?

(1) Saturation

(2) Surface

(3) High altitude

(4) Water vapour

Answer: 3

 

Q.15. Given below are two statements. One labelled as Assertion (A) and other labelled as Reason (R). Select your answer from the codes given below:

Assertion (A): Land surface is heated more quickly and to a greater extent than the water surface when subject to an equal amount of insolation

Reason (R) : The specific heat of land is more than that of water

Codes:

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

(2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not a correct explanation of (A)

(3) (A) is true but (R) is false

(4) (A) is false but (R) is true

Answer: 3

 

Q.16. Which of the following does not enhance the instability of air?

(1) Radiation cooling of earth’s surface after sun set

(2) Rasiation cooling from cloud top

(3) Heating an air mass from below as it passes over a warm surface

(4) Intense solar heating in the lowermost atmosphere

Answer: 1

 

Q.17. The speed of a ocean current is about:

(1) 2% of the speed of prevailing wind

(2) 4% of the speed of prevailing wind

(3) 6% of the speed of prevailing wind

(4) 8% of the speed of prevailing wing View Answer with Explanation

Answer: 1

 

Q.18. The ocean water was iceberg free during the era:

(1) Archaean

(2) Paleozoic

(3) Cenozoic

(4) Mesozoic

Answer: 4

 

Q.19. The salinity of sea ice ranges from:

(1) 0 – 3%

(2) 3 – 10%

(3) 11 – 17%

(4) 28 – 35%

Answer: 2

 

Q.20. Match List – I with List –II and select the correct answer from the codes given below: (UGC NET- JUNE 2015)

List – I (River)   List – II (Sediment transported to ocean in tons/y)
(a) Ganga     (i) 726
(b) Mekong  (ii) 500
(c) Brahmputra   (iii) 1600
(d) Yangtze  (iv) 1000

Codes:

(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (iii)  (ii)     (iv)     (i)   
(2) (ii)  (i)     (iii)     (iv)   
(3) (iv)  (iii)     (i)     (ii)   
(4) (iv)  (iii)     (i)     (ii)   

Answer: 3

 

Q.21. The place where an organism or community of organisms lives is called:

(1) Environment

(2) Atmosphere

(3) Habital

(4) Society

Answer: 3

 

Q.22. Photosynthesis is the process by which:

(1) Radiant energy converted into chemical energy

(2) Radiant energy converted into thermal energy

(3) Radiant energy concerted into bio-energy

(4) Radiant energy converted into geo-thermal energy

Answer: 13

 

Q.23. ‘Vadose water’ remain in between:

(1) Crust and mantle

(2) Mantle and core

(3) Ground surface and water table

(4) Ground surface and tropopause

Answer: 3

 

Q.24. Which one of the following is not a macro-nutrient to plants?

(1) Carbon

(2) Iron

(3) Nitrogen

(4) Oxygen

Answer: 2

 

Q.25. The concept of the laws of ‘primate city’ was given by:

(1) E. Huntington

(2) E. C. Semple

(3) M. Jefferson

(4) W. Christaller

Answer: 3

 

Q.26. To Which school does Eratosthenes, the father of geography belongs to:

(1) Roman

(2) Arab

(3) German

(4) Greek

Answer: 4

 

Q.27. Von thunen’ Agricultural locational theoty is bases on:

(1) Empirical Approach

(2) Normative Approach

(3) Deductive Approach

(4) Behavioral Approach

Answer: 2

 

Q.28. Who was gratly influenced by Le Play’s triology of Place – Work – Folk and adopted an alternate triology of Environment – Function – Organism?

(1) Roxby

(2) Geddes

(3) Herbertsen

(4) Chisholm

Answer: 2

 

Q.29. Which Indian geographer has written the book ‘Geography of Purans’?

(1) S. M. Ali

(2) P. P. Karan

(3) M. Shafi

(4) B. Dubey

Answer: 1

 

Q.30. Match List – I with List- II and select the correct answer from the codes given below: (UGC NET JUNE 2015)

List – I (Modern Indian geographers)

(a) R.L Singh  

(b) G.S. Gosal

(c) C.D. Despande  

(d) V.L.S. Prakash Rao  

List – II (Field of Specializations)

(i) Urban Geography

(ii) Settlement Geography

(iii) Regional Development and planning

(iv) Population Geography

Codes:

(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (i)  (ii)     (iii)     (iv)   
(2) (iii)  (i)     (iv)     (ii)   
(3) (ii)  (iv)     (i)     (iii)   
(4) (iv)  (iii)     (ii)     (i)   

Answer: 3

 

Q.31. Who among the following scholars is not related with behavioural geography?

(1) W.K. Kink

(2) Peter Gould

(3) Yi Fu Twan

(4) Gilbert White

Answer: 3

 

Q.32. Which one of the following states in India has the lowest population density in the latest census?

(1) Arunachal Pradesh

(2) Jammu and Kashmir

(3) Sikkim

(4) Mizoram

Answer: 1

 

Q.33. Which of the following stages of districts in India has recorded the highest sex ratio in 2011?

(1) High stationary stage

(2) Early expanding stage

(3) Late expanding stage

(4) Low stationary stage

Answer: 1

 

Q.34. Which one of the following districts in India has recorded the highest sex ratio in 2011?

(1) Mahe (Pondicherry)

(2) Almora (Uttarakhand)

(3) Alwar (Rajasthan)

(4) Thanjavur (Tamil Nadu)

Answer: 1

 

Q.35. Which one of the following density is calculated using following formula: where N is the number of inhabitants, K is per capita quantity of requirement, S is area in square kilometers, and K’ is the quantity of resources produced per.

(1) Arithmetic

(2) Agricultural

(3) Physiological

(4) Economic

Answer: 4

 

Q.36. Which one of the following measures of central tendency is used to indicate the ‘centre of population’?

(1) Median

(2) Mode

(3) Mean

(4) Harmonic mean

Answer: 3

 

Q.37. Which of the concept relates population size to the land area with a view to assess pressure of population upon the resurces of thee area?

(1) Population Growth Rate

(2) Population Density

(3) Argiculture Density

(4) Physiological Density

Answer: 2

 

Q.38. Which one of the following religions has maximum territorial region of dominance in the world?

(1) Budhism

(2) Islam

(3) Christianity

(4) Hinduism

Answer: 3

 

Q.39. Which one of the following authors has given the concept of “Demand cone” as shown in the diagram? 

(1) Pareto

(2) August Losch

(3) Christaller

(4) Weber  

Answer: 2

 

Q.40. Which of the following group of crops can be grown in the area having temperature and annual rainfall more than 150 cm?

(1) Barley, Jute, Tea

(2) Rubber, Rice Jute

(3) Tea, Coffee, Maize

(4) Rice, Wheat, Maize

Answer: 2

 

Q.41. Match List- I with List-II and select the correct answer from the codes given below:

List-I                      List – II

(Authors)              (theory)

(a) Weber              (i) Minimum production cost

(b) Smith              (ii) Maximum profit

(c) Hotelling        (iii) Minimum transport cost

(d) Hoover         (iv) Market competition

Codes:

        (a) (b) (c) (d)

(1) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)

(2) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

(3) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)

(4) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)

Answer: 1

 

Q.42. Given below are two statements one labelled as assertion (A) and other labelled as Reason(R) select your answer from the codes given below:

Assertion (A ): All Japanese steel production occurs at coastal locations.

Reason (R): The Japanese steel capacity has a coastal exposure and direct access to deep-water ports.

Codes:

(1) Both (A) and (R) are the true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(2) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) as not the correct explanation of (A).

(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

(4) (A) is false, but (R) is true

Answer: 1

 

Q.43. Consider the following map of an area:

Select the correct matrix for the above map:

Answer: 3

 

Q.44. Which one of the following is correct sequence of urban land uses in respect of ab, bc and cd as per given graph?

 (1) Industrial, Residential and Commercial

(2) Commercial, Residential and Industrial

(3) Commercial, Industrial and Residential

(4) Residential, Commercial and Industrial

Answer: 2

Q.45. Whiteness classified agricultural systems of the world. How many agricultural systems were identified by him?

(1) 10

(2) 19

(3) 14

(4) 13

Answer: 4

 

Q.46. Which one of the following group of countries is leading total coal import countries of the world in 2013 according to the world coal association?

(1) Bangladesh, South Africa and France, India

(2) Poland, South Africa, japan and France

(3) China, Japan, India, S. Korea

(4) Japan, South Korea, Frannce, Canada

Answer: 3

 

Q.47. Match List- I with List – II and select the correct answer from codes given below: (UGC NET JUNE 2015)

List –I (Risely’s classification of India Race)

(a) Indo-Aryans

(b) Dravidians  

(c) Mongoloids

(d) Mongolo-Dravidians

List- II  (Representattives of the respective races)

(i) The Bhils of Rajasthan

(ii) The Brahmins of Odisha

(iii) The jats of Odisha

(iv) The Bhutias of Utarakhand

Codes:

(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (i)  (ii)     (iii)     (iv)   
(2) (iv)  (iii)     (ii)     (i)   
(3) (ii)  (iv)     (i)     (iii)   
(4) (iii)  (i)     (iv)     (ii)   

Answer: 4

 

Q.48. Given below two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and other labelled as Reason(R), select your answer from the codes given below: Assertion (A) Indian Ocean has become the military bases by many super- powers. Reason (R) There strong geo-political benefits in Indian Ocean and adjacent countries.

Codes.

(1) Both (A) and are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

(2) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

(4) (A) is false, but (R) is true

Answer: 1

 

Q.49. Match list –I with List –II and select correct answer from the codes given below: (UGC NET JUNE 2015)

List-I (State)

(a) Gujarat    

(b) Madhya Pradesh

(c) Assam   

(d) Odisha

List-II (Tribes)

(i) The gonds

(ii) The Mikirs

(iii) The Khonds

(iv) The Bhils

Codes:

(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (i)  (ii)     (iii)     (iv)   
(2) (iii)  (iv)     (i)     (ii)   
(3) (iv)  (i)     (ii)     (iii)   
(4) (ii)  (iii)     (iv)     (i)   

Answer: 3

 

Q.50. Match List – I with list –II and select the correct answer from the codes given below: (UGC NET JUNE 2015)

List-I (Countries)

(a) U.S.A.    

(b) China    

(c) India     

(d) U.K.     

List-II (Party System Government)

(i) One party

(ii) Two party

(iii) Three party

(iv) Multi party

Codes:

      (a) (b) (c) (d)

(1) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

(2) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)

(3) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)

(4) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)

Answer: 2

 

Q.51. Which of the following statement statements is the base of the concept of caste region?

(1) Numberical strength of a caste

(2) Social ranking of a caste in a region

(3) Proportion of a cast in population

(4) Share of a caste in land ownership

Answer: 3

 

Q.52. Which one of the following is the propounder of the shown model?

(1) Zelinsky’s Mobility Model

(2) Rely’s Modelvof Migration

(3) Gosal Model of Migration

(4) Lee’s Model of Migration

Answer: 4

 

Q.53. Which one of the following regions is defined as “A Contiguous geographical area characterised by cultural homogeneity…”

(1) Population Region

(2) Geographical Region

(3) Cultural Realm

(4) Settlement zone

Answer: 3

 

Q.54. Which constitutional Amendment Act has 12th schedule devolving functions to municipal bodies?

(1) 73rd

(2) 72nd

(3) 74th

(4) 75th

Answer: 3

 

Q.55. Which of the urban structure models labelled three areas:

(1) The city of death,

(2) the city of need and

(3) the city of superfluity

(1) Exploitive model of urban structure

(2) Multiple nuclei

(3) Sector model

(4) Social area analysis model

Answer: 1

 

Q.56. To study regional imbalance and regional disparities in India, which one of the following methods was applied?

(1) Uniweighted Ranks

(2) Composite Index

(3) Principal Component Analysis

(4) Input-Output Analysis

Answer: 3

 

Q.57. Which one of the following factors does not determine the kinds and amount of economic ctivity in the region?

(1) Cost of Transportation

(2) Inequality of Income

(3) Technology of Production

(4) Demand Side of the Equation

Answer: 2

 

Q.58. The main thrust of regional planning is:

(1) To remove areal

(2) To initiate economic growth

(3) To have industrial expansion

(4) To increase per capita income

Answer: 1

 

Q.59. Regional growth model by Douglass C. North emphasize the role of ‘_________ factors’ in regional growth.

(1) Hexagenous

(2) Endogenous

(3) Indogenous

(4) Exogenous

Answer: 4

 

Q.60. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer from the given below: (UGC NET JUNE 2015)

List- I (Concept)

(a) Urban growth

(b) Town group 

(c) Urban  

(d) Urbanisation

List-II (Definitions)

(i) Relatively large and densely settled populations engaged primarily in non- agricultural economic pursuits

(ii) Net population increase of towns and cities

(iii) Proportionate increase of the urban population in relation to total population in a given country

(iv) A group of towns which adjoined one another so closely as to form a single inhabited urban locality

Codes:

(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (iv)  (i)     (iii)     (ii)   
(2) (ii)  (iv)     (i)     (iii)   
(3) (iii)  (ii)     (iv)     (i)   
(4) (i)  (iii)     (ii)     (iv)   

Answer: 2

 

Q.61. Where is Govind Sagar Lake located?

(1) Ranjit Sagar Dam

(2) Hirakund Dam

(3) Kosi Dam

(4) Bhakra Nangal Dam

Answer: 4

 

Q.62. The maximum % share of irrigated area of the gross cultivated area is found in:

(1) Jammu and Kashmir

(2) Uttar Pradesh

(3) Punjab

(4) Haryana

Answer: 3

 

Q.63. Kakrapara irrigation project is on the river:

(1) Narmada

(2) Godavari

(3) Tapti

(4) Mahanadi

Answer: 3

 

Q.64. The river Indus Originates from:

(1) Mansarowar Lake

(2) Kailash range

(3) Loktak lake

(4) Tibet

Answer: 2

 

Q.65. Given below are two statements, one labelled as assertion (A) and other labelled as Reason (R), select your answer from the codes given below:

Assertion (A): Punjab, Haryana and Uttar Pradesh are major wheat producing states of India.

Reason (R): The well-drained fertile soil, temperature at the time of sowing and about 75 cm rainfall are necessary for good wheat production.

Codes:

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R is the correct explanation of (A).

(2) Both (A) and (R are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

(4) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

 

Answer: 1

 

Q.66. Which of the canal has transformed agricultural activities of Sri Ganga Nagar, Bikaner and jaisalmer district?

(1) Kanhar Canalanga Canal

(2) Ram Ganga Canal

(3) Sharada sahayak Canal

(4) Indira Gandhi Canal

Answer: 4

 

Q.67. Report published by UNDP which compares countries based on education levels of people their health status and per capita income, is:

(1) Human Education Report

(2) Human Population Report

(3) Human Development Report

(4) Human Quality Report

Answer: 3

 

Q.68. Spatial data is stored in computer by using:

(1) Plotter digitizer and keyboard

(2) Keyboard and plotter

(3) Scanner, Digitizer and keyboard

(4) Digitizer and scanner

Answer: 4

 

Q.69. LANDSAT, SPOT and IRS are examples of:

(1) Sun-synchronous satellites

(2) Geostationary satellites

(3) Radars

(4) Natural satellites

Answer: 1

 

Q.70. Which one of the following statistical method is best suited for groundwater exploration by using GIS tools?

(1) Standard deviation method

(2) Principal component analysis method

(3) Trial and error method

(4) Index-overlay method

Answer: 4

 

Q.71. Which one of the following countries first launched Operational Remote Sensing satellite?

(1) USA

(2) UK

(3) USSR

(4) Germany

Answer: 1

 

Q.72. Raster data start from:

(1) Top – Right corner of the displayed window.

(2) Top-left corner of the displayed window.

(3) Bottom-Right corner of the displayed window.

(4) Bottom-Left corner of the displayed window.

Answer: 2

 

Q.73. Which one of the following rearms shows variance of a particular distribution?

Answer: 3

 

Q.74. Assume there are four families in a country. The average per capita income of these families is rs. 5000. If the income of three families is Rs.3000, Rs. 4000 and Rs. 7000 respectively, what is the income of fourth family?

(1) 7500

(2) 2000

(3) 3000

(4) 6000

Answer: 4

Q.75. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer from the codes given below: (UGC NET JUNE 2015)

List – I (Landsat 4 and 5 TM)

(a) IFOV

(b) Revisit

(c) Altitude

(d) Swath. Width

List-II (System Characteristics)

(i) 185 km

(ii) 705 km

(iii) 16 days

(iv) 30 30 m for 1-5,7 bands

Codes:

(a) (b) (c) (d)
(1) (i)  (ii)     (iii)    (iv)   
(2) (ii)  (iii)     (i)    (iv)   
(3) (iv)  (iii)     (ii)     (i)   
(4) (iv)  (iii)     (i)     (ii)   

Answer: 3

 

PDF Download Link:  June 2015 Paper 3 Geography

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