WBSET 2023-2024 GEOGRAPHY SOLVED PAPER (1-100) WITH OFFICIAL ANSWER KEY
WBSET GEOGRAPHY QUESTIONS PAPER 2023 BY NETSET CORNER
So, This is the official Questions Paper and Answer Key for the paper 2 conducted on 17 DEC 2023 , taken from official website wbcsc.org.in
Note: This paper contains (100) multiple choice questions, each questions carrying two (2) marks. Attempt all of them.
(PDF) For download pdf file of question paper go to the bottom of this post.
Q.1. When the axis of the fold is tilted and it forms an angle between the axis and the horizontal plane it is known as
(A) Overturned fold
(B) Plunge fold
(C) Monoclinal fold
(D) Nappe
Answer: B
Q.2. Assertion (A): The Rajmahal Hills, formed by eruption of basalts from the Kerguelen Hotspot 100 million years ago, are known for its basalt quarries.
Reason (R) : The 90-E ridge partly connects the Rajmahal Hills with the hotspot that erupted it.
(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is correct but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false but (R) is correct.
Answer: B
Q.3. Steep rectilinear slope without change of angle is designated as
(A) Haldenhang
(B) Hogback
(C) Debris slope
(D) Primarrumpf
Answer: A
Q.4. Which among the following letters is associated with unweathered stones at the base of a soil profile?
(A) D
(B) R
(C) S
(D) W
Answer: R
Q.5. Slow downhill movement of moist regolith under sustained shear stress without heaving is known as
(A) Rockslide
(B) Mud flow
(C) Frost heave
(D) Soil creep
Answer: D
Q.6. Clay represents grains of
(A) < 0.5 µm
(B) < 1 µm
(C) <2 µm
(D) < 4 µm
Answer: B
Q.7. Which of the following is not the direct contribution of weathering in mass movement?
(A) Winnowing of the finer particles.
(B) Increase of water holding capacity in finer particles resulting in pore-water pressure.
(C) Breaking of particles into smaller size and reduction of angle of repose.
(D) Deduction of shear strength of materials by disintegration and decomposition.
Answer: A
Q.8. The ratio of internal force to viscouse force in a fluid is known by
(A) Froude number
(B) Rossby number
(C) Ekman number
(D) Raynolds number
Answer: D
Q.9. At-a-station hydraulic geometry equations of river indicated values of ‘b’ and ‘f’ to be 0.22 and 0.64, respectively. What is the expected value of ‘m’?
(A) 0.34
(B) 0.24
(C) 0.14
(D) 0.04
Answer: C
Q 10. In areas modified by glaciers, kames represent
(A) A detached block of glacial ice.
(B) Remnants of disjoined lateral moraines.
(C) Terraces formed in valley sidewalls due to change in glacial mass balance.
(D) Mounds of stratified sands and gravels.
Answer: D
Q.11. Which of the following statement is not true for katafront?
(A) Katafronts are less active.
(B) Warm airmass sinks relative to cold airmass.
(C) Warm airmass rises relative to the cold airmass.
(D) In Katafronts warm air is overrun by dry descending air.
Answer: C
Q.12. Which of the following statement on insolation is not correct?
(A) Solar wavelengths shorter than 0.285 µm hardly penetrate below 20 km altitude of atmosphere and cannot reach earth’s surface.
(B) Solar radiation is mostly in the short wave range of < 4 µm.
(C) About 38% of incoming solar energy is absorbed by ozone and water vapour.
(D) Insolation varies according to latitude.
Answer: C
Q.13. List-l shows that astronomical effects on solar radiation and List-II shows their cycles.
Choose the correct match from the following options:
List-I
(a) Eccentricity of earth’s orbit
(b) Axial tilt
(c) Wobble and shift of axis at the time of perihelion
List-II
(i) 21,000 years
(ii) 41,000 years
(iii) 95,000 years
Codes:
(a) (b) (c)
(A) (i) (ii) (iii)
(B) (iii) (ii) (i)
(C) (i) (iii) (ii)
(D) (iii) (i) (ii)
Answer: B
Q.14. List-I shows the components of atmosphere and List-II shows their possible sources.
List-I
(a) CH4
(b) N2O
(c) CO2
List-II
(i) Respiration and decomposition by biota
(ii) Microbial activity in soil
(iii) Enteric fermentation in animal
Choose the correct match from the following options.
Codes:
(a) (b) (c)
(A) (i) (ii) (iii)
(B) (ii) (iii) (i)
(c) (iii) (ii) (i)
(D) (ii) (i) (iii)
Answer: C
Q.15. Identify the criteria which is not related to the Bergeron-Fiendeisen Process:
(A) Mixed clouds with co-existence of ice and water.
(B) Differences in saturation vapour pressure.
(C) Migration of water vapour towards sublimation nuclei.
(D) The smaller droplets must be close to the axis of fall of larger drops to increase the collection efficiency.
Answer: D
Q.16. Which of the following terms is a measure of the amount of water vapour in the air as a proportion of the maximum amount of water vapour the air could hold at the same temperature?
(A) Sublimation point
(B) Relative humidity
(C) Dew point
(D) Evaporation rate
Answer: B
Q.17. Assertion (A): In orographic rainfall, the windward slope of a mountain range gets more rainfall than the lee slope.
Reason (R) : The warm humid air that descends down the slope gets warmed up and dry.
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Answer: C
Q.18. Assertion (A): Temperature varies at different time of day.
Reason (R): Radiation intensity per unit area as well as amount of reflection depends on the angle between solar rays and a tangent to the earth’s surface at the time of observation.
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is correct, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is correct.
Answer: A
Q.19. Which among the following statements on tropical cyclone is not correct?
(A) Tropical cyclone mostly occurs in late summer and autumn when equatorial trough is displaced towards north and south.
(B) It does not occur along equator.
(C) At the eye of cyclone, adiabatic warming of descending airmass accentuates high temperature.
(D) It mostly occurs beneath jet stream.
Answer: D
Q.20. The vertical temperature gradient called environmental lapse rate is
(A) 0.0065 °C/m
(B) 0.0060 °C/m
(C) 0.0055 °C/m
(D) 0.0050 °C/m
Answer: A
Q.21. Assertion (A): Sea surface temperature is less than air temperature between 40°N to 40°S and thereafter towards pole in both hemisphere it is opposite.
Reason (R) : Insolation is the sole source of ocean temperature which is high along equator and reduces towards pole.
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Answer: B
Q.22. Assertion (A): Coasts are relatively warmer near onshore wind but colder where wind blows from land towards sea.
Reason (R) : Onshore wind piles up warm water near the coast whereas wind from land drives warm water away from the coast and cold bottom water upwells.
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is correct, and (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, and (R) is correct.
Answer: A
Q.23. Which of the following statements about ocean-floor relief is false?
(A) Ocean-floor relief is more undulating than land relief.
(B) Average depth of ocean is about —3800 m and average elevation of continental landmass is 840 m.
(C) Deepest parts of the ocean always lie in ocean floor away from the coast.
(D) Relief is more complex along active continental margin than a passive one.
Answer: C
Q.24. In ocean, the rule of constant proportion relates to
(A) Salinity
(B) Water mass identification
(C) T-S diagram
(D) Pressure: Density ratio
Answer: A
Q.25. A line connecting equal depths below a water surface is called
(A) Isobase
(B) Isodeep
(C) Isodepth
(D) Isobath
Answer: D
Q.26. The circular orbital motion of water molecules in waves declines with depth. Eventually at some depth there is no more circular movement.
(A) This is the wave base and is equivalent to 1/2 of the wavelength.
(B) This is the wave base and is equivalent to 1/20 of the wavelength.
(C) This is wave amplitude and is equivalent to 1/20 of the wavelength.
(D) This is the ocean bottom and is equivalent to 1/2 of the wavelength.
Answer: A
Q.27. The sea water is saline because of
(A) Operation of the hydrological cycle.
(B) Volcanic out-gassing.
(C) Solution of salts derived from ocean- floor rocks.
(D) Evaporite formation.
Answer: A
Q.28. Ekman transport in the southern hemisphere occurs
(A) 45° to the left of the wind direction.
(B) 45° to the right of the wind direction.
(C) 90° to the left of the wind direction.
(D) 90° to the right of the wind direction.
Answer: C
Q.29. Sea water density does not decrease with
(A) Increasing salinity
(B) Decreasing pressure
(C) Increasing temperature
(D) Decreasing depth
Answer: A
Q.30. Development of the earth’s tidal bulge on the opposite direction of the moon is best explained by
(A) Centripetal force
(B) Gravitational force
(C) Centrifugal force
(D) Coriolis force
Answer: C
Q.31. Read the following statements and choose the correct option
(i) In nitrification NH4+ is converted to NO3-
(ii) In denitrification bacteria uses NO3- for metabolism.
(iii) Nitrogen is more abundant element in living organism than carbon, hydrogen and oxygen.
(iv) In nitrogen fixation, nitrogen is converted to ammonia.
Codes:
(A) (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct but (iv) is incorrect.
(B) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv) are correct.
(C) (ii), (iii) and (iv) are correct but (i) is incorrect.
(D) (i), (iii) and (iv) are correct but (ii) is incorrect.
Answer: B
Q.32. Assertion (A): Corals become bleached.
Reason (R) : Zooxanthellae is damaged by intense ultraviolet radiation, xenobiotic contaminants, alteration of ocean salinity & temperature and intense sedimentation.
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct, and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is correct, but (R) is wrong.
(D) (A) is wrong, but (R) is correct.
Answer: A
Q.33. Assertion (A): Ozone hole centers on polar regions.
Reason (R) : During dark austral winter, ozone along with destructive pollutants (CFC and NOx) are trapped in circum-polar vortex. In the austral spring this ozone is destroyed.
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct, and (R) is the full explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct, and (R) is not the full explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is correct, but (R) is wrong.
(D) (A) is wrong, but (R) is correct.
Answer: B
Q.34. Read the following statements on primary productivity and choose the correct option
(i) In deep sea hydrothermal ecosystem, initial source of energy is not the solar radiation.
(ii) About 50% of incoming solar radiation is photosynthetically active radiation (PAR).
(iii) Only a meagre quantity (2-10%) of PAR is used in primary production on which entire world sustains.
Codes:
(A) (i) and (ii) are correct but (iii) is wrong.
(B) (ii) and (iii) are correct but (i) is wrong.
(C) (i) and (iii) are correct but (ii) is wrong.
(D) (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct.
Answer: D
Q.35. In terrestrial ecosystem, the biomass is about 90-99% less at each higher trophic level. This is known as
(A) Biomass cascade
(B) Food chain
(C) Biomas pyramid
(D) Ecological succession
Answer: C
Q.36. Which among the following is not an air pollutant?
(A) Arsenopyrite
(B) Carbon monoxide
(C) Volatile organic compounds
(D) Nitric oxide
Answer: A
Q.37. The United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC) is also known as
(A) Kyoto protocol
(B) Vienna convention
(C) Earth summit
(D) Montreal protocol
Answer: C
Q.38. The 2-degree climate target has set the following year to achieve it
(A) 2050
(B) 2075
(C) 2100
(D) 2125
Answer: C
Q 39. Which among the following statements on deep ecology is correct?
(A) An ecosystem with more than five tropic levels.
(B) A firmly established ecosystem not threatened by anthropogenic intervention.
(C) An environmental philosophy.
(D) Ecology of the bathyal and abyssal zones of the ocean.C
Answer:
Q.40. Which among the following is the correct sequence of hosting Conference of Parties since 2017?
(A) Madrid, Katowice, Bonn, Glasgow, Sharm el-Sheikh
(B) Bonn, Katowice, Madrid, Glasgow, Sharm el-Sheikh
(C) Katowice, Madrid, Bonn, Sharm el- Sheikh, Glasgow
(D) Bonn, Madrid, Katowice, Glasgow, Sharm el-Sheikh
Answer: B
Q.41. Which one of the following areas is characterised by low fertility rate, low mortality rate and high population growth rate?
(A) The urban areas
(B) The rural areas
(C) The economically under developed areas
(D) Both (A) and (C)
Answer: A
Q.42. Assertion (A): The female work participation in the urban areas of India is lower than that of male work participation.
Reason (R) : The sex ratio (number of female per thousand males) is significantly lower in urban areas of India than that of rural areas.
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Answer: B
Q.43. Which of the following statements relating to population characteristics is/are correct?
(i) The trend of population growth in India can be best represented through exponential trend method.
(ii) The demographic transition model suggests that mortality rate determines fertility rate in the form of positive relationship.
(iii) Horizontal occupational mobility refers to the process of change in the occupation from one type to another.
(iv) Although the arithmetic density of population in mountainous region is quite low, its physiological density can be quite high.
Codes:
(A) Only (i)
(B) Only (i) and (ii)
(C) (i), (iii) and (iv)
(D) (i), (ii) and (iv)
Answer: D
Q.44. Assertion (A): Sex ratio of population in Kerala and other parts of Southern India is very high.
Reason (R) : The life expectancy of female population is higher than male population in Kerala and other parts of Southern India.
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Answer: B
Q.45. Among the following statements of population as per 2011 census data, which is/are correct?
(i) The state with highest proportion of Christian population is Mizoram.
(ii) The state with higher proportion of Hindu population is Himachal Pradesh.
(iii) The state with higher proportion of scheduled castes population is Punjab.
(iv) The state with highest proportion of Muslim population is Assam.
Codes:
(A) (i) only
(B) (i) and (ii)
(C) (ii) and (iii)
(D) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
Answer: C
Q.46. Which of the following relating to Rank- Size relationship of cities is/are correct?
(i) According to Rank-Size Rule, Pr = KR–b.
(ii) According to the law of primate city, the Primacy Index = (P1) / (P2)
(iii) The analysis of Rank-Size relationship suggests that the gradient of regression line is steeper in the urban systems of developed countries as compared to that of less developed countries.
Codes:
(A) Only (i)
(B) Only (ii)
(C) (i) and (iii)
(D) (i) and (ii)
Answer: D
Q47. Ethnicity tends to produce social areas of neighbourhoods which are
(A) sectors
(B) clusters or nuclei
(C) radial
(D) concentric zones
Answer: B
Q.48. Which of the following is correctly arranged sequentially, from the earliest to the latest the types of social changes as identified by Mumford’s theory of origin of towns?
(A) Paleotechnic, Neotechnic, Eotechnic, Biotechnic
(B) Eotechnic, Paleotechnic, Neotechnic, Biotechnic
(C) Biotechnic, Neotechnic, Paleotechnic,
Eotechnic
(D) Paleotechnic, Eotechnic, Neotechnic, Biotechnic
Answer: B
Q.49. In the context of Urban Economic Base Theory, if the non-basic employment is higher than the basic employment in an urban unit, it leads to
(A) Urban economic stagnation
(B) Urban economic recession
(C) Balanced urban growth
(D) Urban economic momentum
Answer: D
Q.50. Which of the following is/are correct?
(i) Patrick Geddes — City region
(ii) Walter Christaller — Settlement hierarchy
(iii) Colin Clark — Urban population density gradient
(iv) W. J. Reilly — Breaking Point theory
Codes:
(A) (i) only
(B) (i) and (iii)
(C) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(D) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
Answer: D
Q.51. With respect to contemporary production and export of agricultural commodity or mineral which of the following statements is/are correct?
(i) India is the largest producer and exporter of mica in the world.
(ii) Australia is the largest producer and exporter of iron ore in the world.
(iii) China is the largest producer and exporter of rice in the world.
Codes:
(A) (i) only
(B) (ii) only
(C) (i) and (iii)
(D) (i) and (ii)
Answer: D
Q.52. Which one of the following sequences with respect to Rostow’s economic growth model is correct?
(A) Traditional society, drive to maturity, take-off, high mass consumption.
(B) Traditional society, take-off, drive to maturity, high mass consumption.
(C) Traditional society, take-off, high mass consumption, drive to maturity.
(D) Traditional society, high mass consumption, take-off, drive to maturity.
Answer: B
Q.53. Which one of the following characteristics is not associated with resource?
(A) It is functional and operational.
(B) It is created through human efforts.
(C) It is exhaustible and it has value in exchange.
(D) It is dynamic.
Answer: C
Q.54. Which one of the following countries is involved in the production of either rice or wheat only?
(A) China
(B) USA
(C) Japan
(D) Indonesia
Answer: D
Q.55. Assertion (A): Intensive subsistance agriculture is characterised by high output per unit of land and relatively low output per capita.
Reason (R) : Intensive subsistence agriculture is practiced in the monsoon region with very small land holdings.
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is correct, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is correct
Answer: B
Q.56. Match the following and choose the correct answer from the codes given below
List-I
(Theorist)
(a) August Losch
(b) D.M. Smith
(c) Allen Pred
(d) Edger Hoover
List-II
(Statement/Concept/Approach)
(i) Area-cost curve theory
(ii) Profit maximization approach
(iii) Delivered prices approach
(iv) Behavioural approach
Codes:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
(B) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)
(C) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
(D) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv)
Answer: A
Q.57. “There must not be another location that may offer a better alternative as a point of origin or as a point of destination.” Which of the Ullman’s principles relate to this statement?
(A) Complementarity
(B) Intervening opportunity
(C) Transferability
(D) Gravity
Answer: B
Q.58. Given below are two statements. Choose the correct answer using the codes given.
(i) Destination choice models are an extension of gravity model.
(ii) ẞ (beta) is a parameter of transport friction related to the efficiency of the transport system between two locations.
Codes:
(A) Only (i) is correct
(B) Only (ii) is correct
(C) Both (i) and (ii) are correct
(D) Neither (i) nor (ii) is correct
Answer: A
Q.59. Consider the following statements
(i) According to Hirschman, inter-regional inequality of growth is an inevitable concommitant and condition of growth itself.
(ii) Trickling down effects (Hirschman) is analogous to spread effects as proposed by Gunar Myrdal.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Codes:
(A) Only (i)
(B) Only (ii)
(C) Both (i) and (ii)
(D) Neither (i) nor (ii)
Answer: C
Q.60. Who among the four theorists is not associated with Dependency Theory of under development?
(A) Paul Baron
(B) Andre Frank
(C) John Friedman
(D) Samir Amin
Answer: C
Q.61. Match List-I with List-II and choose the correct answer from the codes given below:
List-I
(Proponents)
(a) Hirschman
(b) Gunar Myrdal
(c) John Friedman
(d) F. Perroux
List-II
(Theory)
(i) Growth pole
(ii) Trickle down
(iii) Cumulative causation
(iv) Core-periphery
Codes:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
(B) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
(C) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)
(D) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)
Answer: A
Q.62. Choose the correct option from the codes given
(i) The term cultural ecology was first used by American geographer Carl Saur.
(ii) Cultural ecology is the study of how people’s culture is an adaptation of their surrounding environment.
Codes:
(A) (i) is true and (ii) is false
(B) (i) is false and (ii) is true
(C) Both (i) and (ii) are true
(D) Both (i) and (ii) are false
Answer: B
Q.63. Which of the following statements is/are true?
Cultural convergence
(i) occurs due to geographical seclusion.
(ii) refers to the process by which different cultures adopt similar characteristics, ideas or practices.
(iii) promotes cultural diversity.
(iv) can result in rise of transnationalism.
Codes:
(A) (ii) and (iv)
(B) (i) and (iii)
(C) (iii) and (iv)
(D) (ii) only
Answer: A
Q.64. Larger clusters of traits organised about some nuclear point of reference is known as
(A) Culture area
(B) Assimilation of cultures
(C) Cultural ecology
(D) Cultural complex
Answer: D
Q.65. Assertion (A): Muslims of India display high degree of ethnic and cultural diversity.
Reason (R): Muslim masses were largely derived from local ethnic groups, both Hindus and Buddhists and carried with them distinctive ethnic and cultural characteristics even after conversion.
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is correct, but (R) is not correct.
(D) (A) is not correct, but (R) is correct.
Answer: A
Q.66. Which of the following is not included in Dravidian family of languages?
(A) Malto
(B) Gangte
(C) Gondi
(D) Tulu
Answer: B
Q.67. Which one of the following gives the economic reality rather than mental image?
(A) The image of a city
(B) Social area of a city
(C) Command area of a city
(D) The soft city
Answer: C
Q.68. Match List-I with List-Il and find the correct option from the codes given below
List-I
(Communities)
(a) Buddhists
(b) Monkhmer speakers
(c) Konyak tribe
(d) Nayar Caste
List-II
(Area of concentration)
(i) Naga hills
(ii) Sikkim
(iii) Meghalaya Plateau
(iv) Malabar coast
Codes:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv)
(B) (iv) (ii) (i) (iii)
(C) (i) (iv) (iii) (ii)
(D) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)
Answer: D
Q.69. Assertion (A): Voting behaviour in India is influenced by the factor of caste.
Reason (R): Caste system in India is a regional specificity.
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Answer: B
Q.70. Which of the following statement(s) is/are attributed to Mackinder’?
(i) Rimland is far superior spatial unit than heartland.
(ii) Geography is coercive force which determines the evolution of geopolitics.
(iii) Who controls the rimland rules Eurasia; who rules Eurasia controls destinies of the world.
(iv) There is a historical conflict between the land power and sea power.
Codes:
(A) (i), (iii) and (iv)
(B) (ii) and (iii)
(C) (ii) and (iv)
(D) (iii) only
Answer: C
Q.71. The world map prepared by Hecataeus was based on the map of
(A) Herodotus
(B) Anaximander
(C) Ptolemy
(D) Eratosthenes
Answer: B
Q.73. Which one of the following is the correct match from the following list?
List-I
(a) Tableau Da La Geographie da la France
(b) Locational Analysis in Human geography
(c) American History in its geographic condition
(d) Migration Zone Theory
List-II
(i) E. C. Sample
(ii) Griffith Taylor
(iii) La Blache
(iv) Richard Chorley
Codes:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
(B) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
(C) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)
(D) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
Answer: B
Q.74. Who among the following geographers had shown that the Greek division of the world into five climatic zones (two cold, two temperate and one torrid) did not correspond to reality?
(A) Al Muqaddasi
(B) Ibn Khaldun
(C) Al Idrisi
(D) Marco Polo
Answer: C
Q.75. Which of the following statements about Humboldt is correct?
(A) He wrote regional accounts of Mexico and Cuba.
(B) He was a teleologist.
(C) His works are highly deterministic.
(D) He wrote a book named Erdkunde.
Answer: A
Q.76. Which of the following relating to geography books and author names are correct?
(i) Peter Haggett authored the book on ‘Geography: A Global Synthesis’
(ii) R. J. Johnston wrote the book on ‘Geography and Geographers’
(iii) David M. Smith wrote the book on ‘Social Justice and the City’
(iv) David Harvey authored the book on ‘The Urban Experience’
Codes:
(A) (i) and (ii)
(B) (ii) and (iii)
(C) (i), (ii) and (iv)
(D) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
Answer: C
Q.77. Who proposed the concept of ‘Living Space’ In geography?
(A) Carl O’ Sauer
(B) Friedrich Ratzel
(C) David Harvey
(D) David M. Smith
Answer: B
Q.78. Assertion (A): Sex is the biological category and gender is the social construct.
Reason (R): More aggressive nature of men and caring nature of women are not natural characteristics but socially constructed.
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is correct but (R) is wrong.
(D) (A) is wrong but (R) is correct
Answer: A
Q.79. List-I
(Proponents)
(a) R. E. Park
(b) J. Q. Stewart
(c) B. Berry
(d) A.H. Robinson
List-II
(Concept)
(i) Urban Ecology
(ii) Rank-Size Rule
(iii) The Scope of cartography
(iv) Social Physics
Choose the correct match between the above two lists from the following:
Codes:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) (i) (iv) (ii) (iii)
(B) (i) (iv) (iii) (ii)
(C) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)
(D) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
Answer: A
Q.80. Which of the following is not an influence of Darwinism in geography?
(A) Concept of change through time or evolution.
(B) Concept of humanity as part of a living ecological organism.
(C) Concept of anarchism.
(D) Concept of struggle and selection.
Answer: C
Q.81. Which of the following are orthomorphic projections?
(i) Polar Zenithal Stereographic Projection
(ii) Cylindrical Equal Area Projection
(iii) Mercator’s Projection
(iv) Simple Conical Projection with one standard Paralleled
(A) (i) and (i)
(B) (ii) and (iii)
(C) (iii) and (iv)
(D) (i) and (iii)
Answer: D
Q.82. It was observed in a mature sal forest in Jharkhand that the heights of the mature trees (y) are almost same with the increasing distance from the core area of the forest (x). Now, the correlation coefficient between x and y will be
(A) Low positive
(B) Low negative
(C) Moderate positive or negative
(D) Close to zero (0)
Answer: D
Q.83. The appropriate sampling for differential concentration of spatial data in a region is
(A) Hierarchical sampling
(B) Cluster sampling
(C) Snowball sampling
(D) Judgement sampling
Answer: B
Q.84. What does it indicate when the value of chi-square is found to be 0 (zero)?
(A) Null hypothesis accepted
(B) Research hypothesis rejected
(C) Null hypothesis rejected
(D) Both (A) and (B) are correct
Answer: D
Q.85. A sampling data is normally considered statistically significant if
(i) p-value is lower than 0.05
(ii) p-value is lower than 0.01
Considering this information, which one of the following statement is true?
(A) Only (i) is correct
(B) Only (ii) is correct
(C) Both (i) and (ii) are incorrect
(D) Both (i) and (ii) are correct
Answer: D
Q.86. Which statement about a clinographic curve among the following is incorrect?
(A) The horizontal axis shows distance according to scale.
(B) The vertical axis shows elevation according to scale.
(C) It shows the distribution pattern of average slope in different elevation zones.
(D) It is suitable for hilly areas but not suitable for gentle slope areas.
Answer: A
Q.87. If a map, drawn in a scale of 1 cm to 30 km, is to be enlarged three times, then the R.F. of the enlarged map will be
(A) 1:1,000,000
(B) 1:3,000,000
(C) 1:6,000,000
(D) 1:9,000,000
Answer: A
Q.88. Which one of the following satellites move in a geostationary orbit?
(A) Cartosat – 2C
(B) Insat-3DR
(C) Landsat-8
(D) SPOT-7
Answer: B
Q.89. Which among the following sensors has a shortwave infrared band?
(A) LISS-I
(B) LISS-II
(C) LISS-III
(D) LISS-IV
Answer: C
Q.90. Which one among the following is not an example of vector data analysis?
(A) Topology creation
(B) Neighborhood operation
(C) Network analysis
(D) Overlay analysis
Answer: B
Q.91. Assertion (A): India’s green revolution stands for a time span when technology transfer to the agricultural sector greatly increased crop production.
Reason (R): The green revolution of India was possible by technological innovations developed indigenously.
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is correct, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is correct.
Answer: C
Q.92. With reference to the given sequence of some Indian states in terms of selected agricultural production during 2020-21, which of the following is/are correct?
(i) Uttar Pradesh, Madhya Pradesh, Punjab, Haryana (in terms of wheat production)
(ii) Maharashtra, Gujarat, Telangana, Rajasthan (in terms of cotton production)
(iii) West Bengal, Uttar Pradesh, Punjab, Telangana (in terms of rice production)
Codes:
(A) (i) only
(B) (i) and (ii)
(C) (ii) and (iii)
(D) (i), (ii) and (iii)
Answer: D
Q.93. Which one of the following is the main cause behind high population growth in India?
(A) Low death rate
(B) High birth rate
(C) Large scale migration
(D) High life expectancy at birth
Answer: B
Q.94. Which one of the following is the correct Sequence in respect of decreasing level of urbanisation in four selected states of North- East India as per 2011 Census?
(A) Mizoran, Manipur, Arunachal Pradesh, Assam
(B) Mizoram, Assam, Manipur, Arunachal Pradesh
(C) Assam, Manipur, Mizoram, Arunachal Pradesh
(D) Manipur, Assam, Arunachal Pradesh, Mizoram
Answer: A
Q.95. With reference to the given sequences of states in terms of area/population/population density according to 2011 census, which of the following sequences is/are correct?
(i) Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh, Uttar Pradesh, Maharashtra (in terms of area)
(ii) Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, Maharashtra, West Bengal (in terms of population)
(iii) Bihar, West Bengal, Kerala, Uttar Pradesh
(in terms of population density)
Codes:
(A) (i) only
(B) (i) and (ii)
(C) (ii) and (iii)
(D) (iii) only
Answer: D
Q.96. 8586 m is the altitude of which of the following Himalayan peaks?
(A) K2
(B) Nanga Parbat
(C) Kanchenjunga
(D) Nanda Devi
Answer: C
Q.97. According to Govt. of India, the number of agroclimatic zones of India is
(A) 18
(B) 15
(C) 12
(D) 10
Answer: B
Q.98. According to the 2011 census, the correct order of ranking of the large Indian states in terms of urban population to total population ratio is
(A) Kerala, Maharashtra, Tamil Nadu, Gujarat
(B) Kerala, Maharashtra, Gujarat, Tamil Nadu
(C) Maharashtra, Tamil Nadu, Kerala, Gujarat
(D) Tamil Nadu, Kerala, Maharashtra, Gujarat
Answer: D
Q.99. The largest area coverage of zonal soil in India belongs to
(A) Podzol
(B) Laterite
(C) Chernozem
(D) Alluvial
Answer: D
Q.100. An aerial photograph of a terrain having an average elevation of 1400 m is taken at an R.F. of 1:7500. The focal length of the camera is 15 cm. The flight altitude above MSL is
(A) 1225 m
(B) 3025 m
(C) 2525 m
(D) 3535 m
Answer: C
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